Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh 11 năm 2024 - 2025 (Sách mới) 15 Đề thi tiếng Anh 11 sách Global Success, i-Learn Smart World, English Discovery, Bright

Đề thi cuối kì 1 lớp 11 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2024 - 2025 gồm 15 đề có đáp án giải chi tiết kèm theo file nghe. Qua đề kiểm tra cuối kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án giúp các bạn học sinh thuận tiện so sánh đối chiếu với bài làm của mình.

TOP 15 đề thi cuối kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11 gồm các sách Global Success, i-Learn Smart World, Explore New Worlds, Friends plus, English Discovery, Bright. Tài liệu được biên soạn theo cấu trúc rất đa dạng trắc nghiệm kết hợp tự luận. Qua đó giúp giáo viên tham khảo lựa chọn ra đề thi cho các bạn học sinh của mình phù hợp với quy định chung của trường mình dạy học. Bên cạnh đó các bạn xem thêm đề thi học kì 1 Toán 11.

TOP 15 Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 năm 2024 - 2025

1. Đề kiểm tra học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 Global Success

PART A. LISTENING ( 2 POINTS)

Listen to the conversation. Decide if the following sentences are true (T) or false (F).

Bài nghe:

Sentences

TRUE

FALSE

1. Mai is writing an essay about the different cultures in the ASEAN countries.

2. The ASEAN region has the largest number of people speaking English in the world

3. About 50 million people speak English in the ASEAN region.

4. The people in the ASEAN region share the same culture.

5. There are over 50 ethnic groups in Viet Nam.

Listen to some information about global warming and complete a student’s note. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER in each blank. You will listen TWICE

Bài nghe

Student’s note

GLOBAL WARMING

● Global temperature has risen (6) ___________ Celsius every decade.

● Caused by human activities such as (7) __________________.

● About (8) ___________ per cent of people over 55 considered global warming the top priority.

● Some elderly people think it’s unnecessary to change their environmentally unfriendly (9) ___________.

● More and more (10) ____________________ have introduced policies to limit global warming.

PART B. LANGUAGE FOCUS ( 2 POINTS)

Circle A. B. C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

11. A permitted B. wanted C. stopped D. needed

12. A.issue B.exchange C. discuss D. climate

Circle A. B. C. or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

13. A.volunteer B.develop C. experience D. pollution

14. A. promote B.program C. prepare D. suggest

Circle A. B. C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)

15. The scholarship is renewed annuallyand may be stopped if the students havepoor academic records or bad behaviours.

A every day
B. every month
C. every week
D. every year

16/. Land erosion is mainly caused by widespread deforestation.

A, afforestation
B. reforestation
C. logging
D. lawn mowing

Circle A. B. C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)

17. Viet Nam is famousfor World Heritage Sites like Ha Long Bay and Hoi An Ancient Town.

A. honoured
B.popular
C. well-known
D. unknown

18. His policies were beneficialto the economy as a whole.

A. harmless
B. crude
C. harmful
D. innocent

Circle A. B. C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

19. Greenhouse gas __________ from factories and vehicles can result in global warming

A. emit
B. emissions
C. effects
D. causes

20. Most of the jungle was ______________ to get wood in order to produce paper products.

A. deforested
B. threatened
C. warned
D. emitted

21. The doctor advised us to ____________ salt and sugar. We should also do exercise and eat more green vegetables.

A. cut away
B. cut off
C. cut down on
D. cut out

22. Computers have had a great impact _____ our lives since their appearance.

A. on
B. at
C. for
D. to

23. Limiting the global temperature rise requires __________ global CO2 emissions

A. reduce
B. to reduce
C. reducing
D. reduced

24. Quality of life will be improved _________ the cleaner environment.

A. thanks to
B. despite
C. because
D. in spite of

25. Human beings now have to _____________ environmental issues.

A. ensure
B. carry out
C. consume
D. deal with

26. I expected..........to her birthday party but I wasn’t.

A. inviting
B. to be invited
C. to invite
D. invite

27. Hoang .........a new hat when I met him yesterday.

A. were wearing
B. wore
C. had worn
D. was wearing

28. ........... for twelve hours, I felt marvelous.

A. Having slept
B. have slept
C. Having been slept
D. have been slept

29. My sister................here since she graduated the University.

A. working
B. worked
C. has worked
D. was working

30. Henry agreed................me his motorbike.

A. lend
B.to lend
C. lent
D. lending

PART C. READING ( 2 POINTS)

Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blank.

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is an organization of ten Southeast Asian countries: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, (1) ____ Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam. It promotes political, economic, cultural and social cooperation (2) ____ its members. Although ASEAN works for peace and stability in Southeast Asia, it is not a defence organization.

The members of ASEAN cooperate in such fields (3) ____ population control, prevention of drug abuse, (4) ____ research and combating terrorism. Teachers, students and artists of the member nations exchange visits. In addition, the organization develops plans to promote tourism in ASEAN countries and to encourage programs of Southeast Asian studies. It works to (5) ____ trade barriers among the members.

31. A. the B. a C. an D. Ø

32. A. between B. through C. among D. from

33. A. like B. as C. alike D. that

34. A. scientific B. science C. scientist D. scientifically

35. A. increase B. prevent C. develop D. reduce

Read the following passage and circle A. B. C. or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The costs and benefits of global warming will vary greatly from area to area. For moderate climate change, the balance can be difficult to assess. But the larger the change in climate, the more negative the consequences will become. Global warming will probably make life harder, not easier, for most people This is mainly because we have already built enormous infrastructure based on the climate we now have.

People in some temperate zones may benefit from milder winters, more abundant rainfall, and expanding crop production zones. But people in other areas will suffer from increased heat waves, coastal erosion, rising sea level more erratic rainfall, and droughts.

The crops, natural vegetation, and domesticated and wild animals (including seafood) that sustain people in a given area may be unable to adapt to local or regional changes in climate. The ranges of diseases and insect pests that are limited by temperature may expand, if other environmental conditions are also favourable.

In its summary report on the impacts of climate change, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change stated, "Taken as a whole, the range of published evidence indicates that the net damage costs of climate change are likely to be significant and to increase over time.”

36. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Environment pollution is real.
B. Reasons why low-lying areas are flooded.
C. Solutions to global warming.
D. Reasons why global warming is a problem.

37. Which of the following is TRUE as the result of global warming?

A. All people suffer from global warming.
B. All people benefit from global warming.
C. Life is more difficult for the majority of people.
D. Life is easier for most people.


38. In paragraph 1, the word “this” refers to ____.

A. harder life as a result of global warming
B. easier life as a result of global warming
C. climate change on global scale
D. flood in low-lying areas

39. In paragraph 2, the word “erratic” is closest in meaning to ____.

A. predictable
B. unpredictable
C. changeable
D. unchangeable

40. According to the passage, all of the following are the results of global warming EXCEPT ____.

A. higher temperature
B. coastal erosion
C. increasing sea level
D. stable rainfall

PART D. WRITING ( 2POINTS)

Rewrite the following sentences as long as the meaning is unchanged

41. “Why don’t we go to the cinema?”

He suggested _____________________________________________________________

42. It takes Thanh 3 hours a day to do her homework

Thanh spends _____________________________________________________________

43. He would rather eat vegetables and fruits than eat meat

He prefers _____________________________________________________________

44. As she was on holiday, she couldn't go to the party.
→ Being ______________________________________________________________

45. He began to live here 7 years ago

->He has______________________________________________________________

Write a proposal (120-150 words) for a new recycling programme at your school. You can use the following questions as cues.

How is the recycling system at your school?

What are the benefits of recycling at schools?

What does the school do?

What do students do?

Đáp án đề thi tiếng Anh 11 Global Success học kì 1

1. Listening

Ex 1. Listen to the conversation. Decide if the following sentences are true (T) or false (F).

1. Mai is writing an essay about the different cultures in the ASEAN countries. → T

2. The ASEAN region has the largest number of people speaking English in the world → F

3. About 50 million people speak English in the ASEAN region. → T

4. The people in the ASEAN region share the same culture. → F

5. There are over 50 ethnic groups in Viet Nam.→ F

Listening 2

1. 0.18 degrees

2. burning fossil fuels

3. 50

4. habits

5. countries and governments

Writing

1. She doesn't feel like doing her homework

2. It's better to avoid going out in the rain

3. Would you mind closing the window

4. Do you consider helping him paint the wall?

5. Would you mind preparing dinner?

6. He came in the house without talking anything

7. He prefers playing tennis to going swimming

..........

Xem chi tiết đáp án trong file tải về

Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11

TT

Kĩ năng

Mức độ nhận thức

SỐ CÂU

Tổng

Nhận biết

Thông hiểu

Vận dụng

Vận dụng cao

Tỉ lệ (%)

Thời gian

(phút)

Tỉ lệ (%)

Thời gian

(phút)

Tỉ lệ (%)

Thời gian

(phút)

Tỉ lệ (%)

Thời gian

(phút)

Tỉ lệ (%)

Thời gian

(phút)

1

Nghe

10

3 - 6

5

3 - 4

5

2 - 4

10

(=0,2đ/1 câu)

20

10

2

Ngôn ngữ

10

3 - 7

10

7 - 8

4NA+

6 TV+

10NP

(=0,1đ/1 câu)

20

15

3

Đọc

10

4 - 5

5

4 - 5

5

5 - 8

10

(=0,2đ/1 câu)

20

15

4

Viết

5

5 - 6

5

4 - 5

5

5 - 9

5

3 - 5

VIẾT LẠI (5 CÂU 0.5đ)

Essay (120 words) = 1,5 đ

20

20

5

Nói

5

5 - 6

5

2 - 3

5

3 - 4

5

2 - 5

Task 1 = 1đ

Task 2 = 1đ

20

1 buổi riêng

Tổng

40

20 - 30

30

20 - 25

20

15 - 25

10

5 - 10

100

60

(không tính nói)

Tỉ lệ (% )

40

30

20

10

100

Tỉ lệ chung (%)

70

30

100

Lưu ý:

- Thời gian mang tính đề xuất, cán bộ ra đề tham khảo để lựa chọn số câu hỏi cho phù hợp với thời gian ấn định của bài kiểm tra.

- Tỉ lệ mức độ nhận thức mang tính đề xuất.

- Tỉ lệ giữa các kỹ năng và kiến thức ngôn ngữ có thể điều chỉnh trong khoảng 5%.

- Tỉ lệ được tính dựa trên điểm số, không tính trên số lượng câu hỏi.

- Tỉ lệ giữa câu trắc nghiệm khách quan và câu tự luận là tương đối, có thể điều chỉnh theo điều kiện thực tế.

BẢNG ĐẶC TẢ KỸ THUẬT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ 1

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11 – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT

TT

Kỹ năng

Đơn vị kiến thức/kỹ năng

Mức độ kiến thức, kỹ năng

cần kiểm tra, đánh giá

Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức

Tổng Số CH

Nhận biết

Thông hiểu

Vận dụng

Vận dụng cao

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

I.

LISTENING

1. Nghe một đoạn hội thoại/ độc thoại trong khoảng 1.5 phút (khoảng 160 – 180 từ) để trả lời các dạng câu hỏi có liên quan đến các chủ đề đã học.

(True/False hoặc Yes/No hoặc dạng bài tương tự)

Nhận biết:

- Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết.

2-3

2-3

Thông hiểu:

- Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn độc thoại/ hội thoại để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

2-3

2-3

Vận dụng:

- Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp.

- Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

1

1

2. Nghe một đoạn hội thoại/ độc thoại khoảng 1.5 phút (khoảng 160 – 180 từ) liên quan đến các chủ đề đã học.

(MCQs hoặc Gap filling và / hoặc dạng bài tương tự)

Nhận biết:

- Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết.

2-3

2-3

Thông hiểu:

- Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn độc thoại/ hội thoại để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

2-3

2-3

Vận dụng:

- Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp về thái độ, tình cảm, quan điểm trong bài.

- Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

1-2

1-2

II.

LANGUAGE

1. Pronunciation

Các nguyên âm đơn, nguyên âm đôi, phụ âm, tổ hợp phụ âm, trọng âm từ, trọng âm câu, nhịp điệu và ngữ điệu.

(MCQs hoặc dạng bài tương tự)

Nhận biết:

- Nhận biết các âm và trọng âm thông qua các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học.

2

2

Thông hiểu:

- Phân biệt được các âm trong phần nghe.

Vận dụng:

- Hiểu và vận dụng vào bài nghe/nói.

2. Vocabulary

Từ vựng đã học theo chủ điểm: healty life, generation gap, Asia, globla warming…

(MCQs hoặc Word formation và / hoặc dạng bài tương tự)

Nhận biết:

- Nhận ra, nhớ lại, liệt kê được các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học.

1-2

1-2

Thông hiểu:

- Hiểu và phân biệt được các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học.

- Hiểu các mối liên kết và kết hợp của từ trong bối cảnh và ngữ cảnh tương ứng.

3-4

3-4

Vận dụng:

- Sử dụng được từ vựng đã học trong văn cảnh (danh từ, động từ, tính từ và trạng từ…) trong các kỹ năng

3. Grammar

Các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học: Past simple. present perfect, modal verbs, Ving/ to- inf, participle clause…

(MCQs hoặc Word formation và / hoặc dạng bài tương tự)

Nhận biết:

- Nhận ra được các kiến thức ngữ pháp đã học.

1-2

1-2

Thông hiểu:

- Hiểu và phân biệt các kiến thức trong chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học.

1-2

1-2

Vận dụng:

- Sử dụng kiến thức ngữ pháp đã học vào bài nghe/ nói/ đọc/ viết.

III.

READING

1. Reading Comprehension

Hiểu được bài đọc có độ dài khoảng 200-230 từ về các chủ điểm đã học.

(Cloze test MCQs hoặc Matching / True-False và / hoặc dạng bài tương tự)

Nhận biết:

- Nhận ra được các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản.

3-4

3-4

Thông hiểu:

- Phân biệt được các đặc trưng, đặc điểm các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản.

1-2

1-2

Vận dụng:

- Sử dụng các kiến thức ngôn ngữ và kỹ năng trong các tình huống mới.

1-2

1-2

2. Reading comprehension

Hiểu được nội dung chính và nội dung chi tiết đoạn văn bản có độ dài khoảng 200-230 từ, xoay quanh các chủ điểm có trong chương trình

(MCQs hoặc Matching / True-False và / hoặc dạng bài tương tự)

Nhận biết:

- Thông tin chi tiết

3-4

3-4

Thông hiểu:

- Hiểu ý chính của bài đọc và chọn câu trả lời phù hợp.

- Hiểu được nghĩa tham chiếu.

- Loại trừ các chi tiết để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp

1-2

1-2

Vận dụng:

- Đoán nghĩa của từ trong văn cảnh.

- Hiều, phân tích, tổng hợp ý chính của bài để chọn câu trả lời phù hợp.

1

1

IV.

WRITING

Nhận biết:

- Nhận diện dùng từ, cấu trúc, cú pháp trong các bài viết có kiểm soát như sắp xếp từ thành câu hoàn chỉnh, tìm lỗi sai.

2-3

2-3

1. Guided

Viết lại câu dùng từ gợi ý hoặc từ cho trước.

(Sentence transformation và / hoặc Sentence building và tương đương)

Thông hiểu:

- Hiểu câu gốc và sử dụng các từ gợi ý để viết lại câu sao cho nghĩa không thay đổi.

2-3

2-3

Vận dụng:

- Hiểu và sử dụng các từ gợi ý để viết thành câu sao cho hoàn chỉnh về cú pháp và nghĩa.

2-3

2-3

2. Freer/Free

Viết tóm tắt/ Viết đoạn văn.

(Summary/ Passage)

Vận dụng cao:

– Viết đoạn văn liền mạch, đơn giản khoảng 100 – 130 từ về các chủ điểm mà cá nhân quan tâm và bày tỏ quan điểm, ý kiến cá nhân.

– Viết các thông điệp cá nhân cho bạn bè hoặc người thân, đề nghị cung cấp thông tin và tường thuật các sự kiện liên quan.

4-6

4-6

V.

SPEAKING

(Phần SPEAKING tổ chức thi buổi riêng)

+ Nội dung:

- Hỏi - đáp và trình bày về các nội dung liên quan đến các chủ điểm có trong chương trình.

- Sử dụng được một số chức năng giao tiếp cơ bản như hướng dẫn, bày tỏ ý kiến, hỏi đường, hỏi thông tin và cung cấp thông tin, …

+ Kỹ năng:

- Kỹ năng trình bày một vấn đề; sử dụng ngôn ngữ cơ thể và các biểu đạt trên khuôn mặt phù hợp; kỹ năng nói trước đám đông…

+ Ngôn ngữ và cấu trúc:

- Ưu tiên sử dụng những cấu trúc đã học trong chương trình.

(Các chủ đề nói trong phần ghi chú)

1. Introduction

Nhận biết:

- Giới thiệu các thông tin về bản thân/ sở thích/ về thầy cô, mái trường/ môn học yêu thích.

5%

2. Topic speaking

Thông hiểu:

- Sử dụng kiến thức ngôn ngữ đã học để nói theo chủ đề.

Vận dụng:

- Sử dụng từ vựng và cấu trúc linh hoạt, diễn tả được nội dung cần nói theo những cách khác nhau. Phát âm tương đối chuẩn.

1 bài*

5%

3. Q&A

Vận dụng cao:

- Hiểu, đặt câu hỏi và trả lời được câu hỏi một cách linh hoạt. (của giám khảo hoặc của thành viên trong nhóm). Sử dụng ngôn ngữ một cách tự nhiên và thuần thục.

1 bài*

10%

Tổng

16-

23

10-

16

2-3

4-6

2-3

4-6

32-

48

8-12

Lưu ý:

- Với câu hỏi ở mức độ nhận biết và thông hiểu thì mỗi câu hỏi cần được ra ở một chỉ báo của mức độ kiến thức, kỹ năng cần kiểm tra, đánh giá tương ứng (1 gạch đầu dòng thuộc mức độ đó).

- Số câu hỏi mang tính đề xuất và do ban biên soạn xác định cụ thể khi xây dựng đề kiểm tra.

2. Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 Bright

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO….

TRƯỜNG THPT…………..

ĐỀ KIÊM TRA CUỐI KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2024- 2025

Môn: Tiếng Anh 11

(Thời gian .. phút không kể thời gian giao đề)

Câu 1 :Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.

Câu 1.1

A. full
B. juice
C. blue
D. fruit

Câu 1.2

A. above
B. remove
C. approve
D. move

Câu 1.3

A. fish
B. river
C. village
D. wild

Câu 2 :Choose the word that has a stress pattern different from the others.

Câu 2.1

A.result
B. design
C. amount
D. language

Câu 2.2

A. government
B. management
C. example
D. evidence

Câu 3 :Choose the best option for each of the questions.

Câu 3.1

Scientists have ________ new species in different parts of tropical areas.

A. invented
B. uncovered
C. discovered
D. caused

Câu 3.2

Humans _________ most of the world’s grassland into fields of corn, wheat or other crops.

A.turned
B. turning
C. turns
D. have turned

Câu 3.3

Chris: Can you help me make an online donation to the historical society? – Danielle: __________

A. Sure.
B. I don’t think so
C. That’s impossible!
D. See you later.

Câu 3.4

There is a ___________ near the rocks that guides boats at night.

A. monument
B. statue
C. light house
D. castle

Câu 3.5 You can _________ visit museums or watch the sunset.

A. either
B. neither
C. both
D. and

Câu 3.6 Fred: The simplest way we can do is to conserve water at home. – Owen: _________

A. I don’t know.
B. Perhaps we could.
C. You have no idea.
D. I suppose you’re right.

Câu 3.7 It’s quite frightening to go underground into the _________.

A. sand dune
B. cave
C. bay
D. valley

Câu 3.8 It was at Bến Thành market _______ we took lots of wonderful photos.

A. which
B. whom
C. where
D. that

Câu 3.9 The plane took _________ 30 minutes late, so the tourists arrived at the hotel late.

. A. on
B. away
C. off
D. of

Câu 3.10. Lots of children say that their parents usually ________ them about chores and studying.

A. advise
B. nag
C. argue
D. punish

Câu 3.11. The brothers ________ time with their friends this Sunday because they want to visit their aunt.

A. spend
B. are spending
C. don’t spend
D. aren’t spending

Câu 4 : Write the correct form of the given words.

17. The Louvre Museum is a destination in Paris. (KNOW)

..........................................

18. Both the castle and the tomb are on the highest hill. (LOCATE)

..........................................

19. Archaeologists work to repair and protect the buildings in the city of Ayutthaya. (HISTORY)

..........................................

20. William doesn’t get on well with his sister. There are often lots of between them. (ARGUE)

..........................................

Câu 5 :Choose the options that best complete the passage.

Hi everyone!

I'm 16 years old. I fully understand that the teenage years are not always easy these days because we must deal with lots of problems. The first problem should be our studies. We mostly worry about our (21) ________ and how to improve our grades. Moreover, we're sometimes under huge stress thinking about our (22) ________ trying to find out what jobs we can do. The second problem we must face is the generation gap between teenagers and parents. It's common to (23) ________ our parents over chores. Besides, some parents usually nag their teenage children about their attitude and behaviour. It's very sad that some teens don't get on well with their families, and their parents feel powerless to advise their children. The last problem is our biological changes. During adolescence, lots of teens are moody and even become (24) ________Our bodies can develop quickly and sometimes in an annoying way, which can reduce our confidence and affect our behaviour. For example, some teenagers have strange manners and (25) ________at home. Are you experiencing any of these teen problems? Then, you are not alone. I'd love to hear about your worries and give as much help as I can.

Câu 5.1

A. friendship
B. school performance
C. family problems
D. attitude

Câu 5.2

A. hobbies
B. pocket money
C. future careers
D. modern technology·

Câu 5.3

A. look after
B. help with
C. carry out
D. argue with

Câu 5.4

A. difficult
B. easy-going
C. old-fashioned
D. strict

Câu 5.5

A. feel happy
B. do more chores
C. break rules
D. earn money

Câu 6 : Read the passage and decide whether the statements are True, False or Doesn’t say.

Dear Edward,

I'm travelling around Vietnam with my friends, Jason and Walton. Yesterday, we visited My Son Sanctuary in Quảng Nam, one of the most historic sites in Vietnam as well as Southeast Asia.

Mỹ Son Sanctuary is recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site that was built from the 4th century to the 13th century CE. The site is located in a picturesque valley surrounded by high mountains in Quảng Nam and near the start of the Thu Bon River. The site has a collection of at least 70 ruined Hindu temples that the Chăm built to worship their gods. We arrived at Mỹ Son at around 7 a.m., had breakfast and then began exploring the historic temples. Some of them had some amazing statues of Hindu gods. I was mostly impressed by the good condition of the temple walls. Most wall bricks are over 1,000 years old but still beautifully red. We took lots of photos and made some clips of the temples.

I also learn a lot about the historical values of the site from a local tour guide. We heard about Chăm people's history, watched a Chăm performance with dancing and live music. We also rented some traditional Chăm costumes. I looked quite funny in them, but I kind of enjoyed it. It was so much fun! I bought some souvenirs on the site. I can't wait to give them to my family. Our visit to Mỹ Son was really an amazing experience for those who love historical structures. You should definitely visit it.

Write back soon,

Zoe

Câu 6.1 My Son has historic values beyond Vietnam.

A. True
B. False
C. Doesn't say

Câu 6.2 : Chăm people built all the temples in the 4th century.

A. True
B. False
C. Doesn't say

Câu 6.3 Historically, Chăm people only worshipped Hindu gods.

A. True
B, False
C. Doesn't say

Câu 6.4. Zoe admired the temple walls the most.

A. True
B. False
C. Doesn't say

Câu 6.5 : Zoe looked great in the Chăm costumes.

A. True
B. Fasle
C. Doesn't say

Câu 7 : Write the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one.

31. We walked around the Edinburgh Castle with our tour guide this morning. (SHOWED)

32. Lily isn't going on the boat trip. Her brothers aren't going on the boat trip. (NEITHER ... NOR)

33. Jennifer began shopping with a cloth bag to help fight global warming in 2021.
Jennifer has

34. The more trees we grow, the more carbon emissions we reduce. (CUT)

35. The local economy began to change negatively because of the decline in marinebiodiversity. (SINCE)

Câu 8 : A man is talking about the Great Bear Rainforest. Listen and write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each of the blanks.

36. The Great Bear Rainforest is one of the rainforests.

37. There are less than of the spirit bear in the Great Bear Rainforest.

38. Spirit bears climb trees to eat many types of fruits and

39. The tourism development in the area has been suitable because it hasn't damaged the

40. The best time to visit the rainforest is when lots of swim back to the rainforest rivers to lay eggs.

Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10

1. A

6. A

11. D

16. C

21. B

26. T

36. largest

2. A

7. C

12. B

17. well-known

22. C

27. F

37. 400 individuals

3. D

8. A

13. D

18. located

23. D

28. DS

38. insects

4. D

9. D

14. C

19. historic

24. A

29. T

39. local ecosystem

5. C

10. C

15. B

20. arguments

25. C

30. F

40. salmon

31. Our tour guide showed us around the Edinburgh Castle this morning.

32. Neither Lily nor her brothers are going on the boat trip.

33. Jennifer has shopped with a cloth bag to help fight global warming since 2021.

34. The more trees we grow, the more carbon emissions we cut down.

35. Since the decline in marine biodiversity, the local economy began to change negatively.

............

3. Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 Friends plus

SỞ GD-ĐT ……….

TRƯỜNG THPT ……………

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC - HỌC KỲ I - NĂM HỌC 2024-2025

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH FRIENDS PLUS 11

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences.

1. A. worm

B. work

C. worse

D. more

2. A. located

B. walled

C. visited

D. printed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following sentences.

3. A.individual B. conservatory C.alternative D. technology

4. A. media B. computer C.employee D.collection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

5. Little Pete is an adorable child. He on very well with anyone around him.

A. catches
B. fits
C. gets
D. runs

6. After a while, John got used to care of himself living in the dormitory.

A. take
B. being take
n C. taking
D. be taken

7. We the house all morning. That’s why we are exhausted.

A. have cleaned
B. have been cleaning
C. were cleaning
D. cleaned

8. Mr. Pike is fond of decorating his own restaurant the things he has collected.

A. on
B. in
C. by
D. with

9. We have read several books by J.K Rowling .

A. from now on
B. from then on
C. so far
D. last year

10. I regret the opportunity to attend the concert last night.

A. miss
B. missing
C. missed
D. to miss

11. The sudden change in pressure often accompanies approaching storms.

A. peer
B. blood
C. atmospheric
D. room

12. They are looking protect their identity on the Internet.

A. for
B. at
C. to
D. forward to

13. the development projects brought new job opportunities to the area, but they have also improved the local infrastructure and increased access to essential services for the residents.

A. Not only did
B. Not only had
C. Not only have
D. Not only will

14. The target company's logo features several circles around a central point.

A. for
B. at
C. to
D. forward to

Mark the letter A, B, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

15. Peter: “I like your attractive new haircut.” - Lily: “ ”

A. You know, it took a lot of courage to try this new style.
B. I think I look better than everyone else now.
C. Well, it's about time someone noticed.
D. I really appreciate your kind words.

16. Interviewer: “Tell me about your previous work experience.” - Candidate: “ ”

A. I have been working in the industry for seven years.
B. It’s a great question.
C. I’m delighted to know that you want to know more about me.
D. At long last. So much has been asked about the company already.

Give the correct form of the word in the brackets in the following questions.

17. The new vaccine has proved to be very in preventing the disease. (EFFECT)

18. The company experienced a decline in profits during the last quarter. (SIGNIFICANCE)

19. The novel captivated the with its intricate plot and compelling characters. (READ)

20. The speaker's words ignited a fire within the audience. (PASSION)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The noun “memorabilia” describes items that remind you (21) a certain event or time. It is derived from the Latin word “memorare”, (22) “to bring to mind”. Memorabilia are saved to help their owner (23) his or her memory. Some parents keep every drawing and report card their children bring (24) . They are actually collecting memorabilia for the future. As an item of memorabilia, a t-shirt, which is designed to commemorate an event, is (25) of “been there, done that”.

...................

Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11

HƯỚNG DẪN GIẢI

1. D

9. C

17. effective

25. B

33. D

2. B

10. B

18. significant

26. A

34. D

3. A

11. C

19. readers

27. B

35. A

4. A

12. C

20. passionate

28. B

36. program

5. C

13. C

21. C

29. C

37. decide

6. C

14. D

22. B

30. B

38. unhealthy

7. B

15. D

23. A

31. B

39. keep

8. B

16. A

24. A

32. B

40. keep track

..............

4. Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 11 học kì 1 English Discovery

Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 11

I. PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the rest.

1. A. authentic

B. monument

C. pagoda

D. religious

2. A. temperature

B. renewable

C. technology

D. responsible

3. A. climate

B. effect

C. carbon

D. forest

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest.

4. A. appetite

B. bitter

C. rotten

D. dessert

5. A. cut

B. burn

C. thumb

D. luck

II. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY

Choose the best option (A, B, C, D) to complete each of the following sentences.

6. Foreign tourists visiting Hà Nội really enjoy food, such as bún chả and phở bò. A. cultural B. significant C. national D. local

7. My parents were excited to be the first the mountain.

A. to climb
B. climbing
C. climb
D. have climbed

8. Our trip to Borobudur was . Everything was stunning.

A. historic
B. boring
C. unforgettable
D. ancient

9. Minh, is interested in exotic species, has decided to join a campaign to raise awareness of wildlife conservation.

A. which
B. whom
C. whose
D. who

10. Linh came a book about endangered species in the library last week.

A. across
B. up
C. upon
D. into

11. All of our lamps have low-energy light , so we spend quite a bit less on electricity.

A. panels
B. bulbs
C. bins
D. energy

12. I am happy there has been an increase in the use of renewable energy sources in Việt Nam.

A. for
B. that
C. about
D. with

13. A good leader has the to motivate people.

A. plan
B. decision
C. ability
D. need

14. One cause of heart diseases is food.

A. quick
B. junk
C. slow
D. ripe

15. Governments are making efforts food waste in catering industry.

A. reduced
B. reduce
C. to reduce
D. reducing

Fill in the blanks with the correct forms of the words in brackets.

17. Air in Asian cities is horrible; that's why so many people wear face masks. (POLLUTE)

19. areas also have many varieties of smoked fish and fish pies. (COAST)

II. READING

Read the text and fill in the blanks with ONLY ONE WORD and/or A NUMBER from the text.

Complex of Huế Monuments is situated on the north bank of Perfume River, is grand citadel built during the reign of Emperor Gia Long in 1805. The royal court had to mobilize around 30,000 people to work on the river embankments and canals. By 1818, the number of people mobilized had increased to 80,000, focusing on brick cladding on the East, West, South, and North sides.

The Hue Imperial Citadel, or Hoang Thanh served as the residence of the emperors and the royal family, and the administrative center of the royal court. It is also a significant site of worship for ancestors and the late emperors of the Nguyen Dynasty.

Construction of Hoang Thanh began in 1804 under the reign of Emperor Gia Long and was completed in 1833 under the reign of Emperor Minh Mang. The citadel has four gates, with Ngo Mon as the grand entrance. Inside the citadel, there are many impressive structures, including Thai Hoa Palace, Dien Tho Residence, Hien Lam Pavilion, and more.

Despite more than two centuries of existence, Complex of Huế Monuments has managed to withstand the erosion of time and the destruction of war, preserving its grandeur and magnificence. Its palaces, fortresses, and tombs are all mostly intact. A visit to Complex of Huế Monuments is a must for any traveler seeking to delve into Vietnam's rich cultural heritage.

21. Builders were first to build river embankments and canals.

22. It is in Hoang Thanh that the of the Nguyen Emperors were worshipped.

23. The construction of Hoang Thanh did not until Minh Mang dynasty.

24. Complex of Huế Monuments was built years ago.

25. Complex of Huế Monuments is a part of Vietnam’s cultural heritage.

Read the text and choose the best answers.

Viruses

Viruses cause many human diseases, ranging from the common cold and the flu to more serious ones such as AIDS and Covid-19. On their (26) , viruses are not alive. They become active when they infect or enter our bodies. They can do that easily because they are very small. Then, they start to act like living things and make (27) of themselves. People have natural defences against viruses. For example, a fever can make some viruses inactive. The body’s immune system also fights viruses.

Vaccines cannot treat diseases caused by viruses, but they can help (28) the spread of disease. Vaccines contain viruses which are weakened or dead and help the body’s immune system make substances

called antibodies, which fight disease. If the same virus enters our body later on, the immune system will (29) it and will know how to fight it off.

Giving people vaccines can save a lot of lives. For example, two million people died of smallpox in 1967. (30), vaccines helped to stop this disease and made it disappear. Most recently, vaccines have played an important role in reducing deaths and severe illness caused by Covid-19 all over the world.

26. A. side
B. own
C. bodies
D. soil

27. A. copies
B. bodies
C. cells
D. bacteria

28. A. prevent
B. increase
C. treat
D. improve

29. A. recognise
B. forget
C. avoid
D. stop

30. A. Besides
B. However
C. Therefore
D. Next

V. WRITING

Use the word in capitals to rewrite the sentences. Do not change the given word.

35. The World Wide Fund for Nature has over five million supporters in the world. Its headquarters are in Switzerland. (WHICH)

VI. LISTENING

Listen to an interview about extreme weather and decide whether the sentences are True (T) or False (F).

Bài nghe:

36. Any type of weather that differs from what we are accustomed to is considered extreme weather.

37. According to Roberta, we are not seeing more severe weather than in the past.

38. Many places in the world recorded harsh weather conditions in the year of 2013.

39. Climate change does not necessarily mean that everyone will experience an increase in temperature.

40. Poorer nations often endure less extreme weather because of their geographical location.

Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11

1. B

6. D

11. B

16. preservable

21. mobilized

26. B

36. T

2. A

7. A

12. B

17. pollution

22. ancestors

27. A

37. F

3. B

8. C

13. C

18. hungry

23. complete

28. A

38. T

4. D

9. D

14. B

19. coastal

24. over 200

29. A

39. T

5. B

10. A

15. C

20. touristy

25. rich

30. B

40. F

31. My parents, who always wake up early, see the sunrise.

32. It was on the second day that we visited the incredible Taj Mahal.

33. Tourists coming to Egypt should watch the weather forecast first.

34. It's a good idea to have coffee by the Seine.

...........

5. Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 Explore New Worlds

Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh lớp 11

SỞ GD-ĐT ……….

TRƯỜNG THPT …………………

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ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC - HỌC KỲ I
NĂM HỌC 2024-2025

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH 11 Explore New Worlds

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 1: 'Don't be so disappointed Jane. You can take the driving test again,' said Helen.

A. Helen told Jane not to be disappointed and take the driving test again.
B. Helen encouraged Jane to take the driving test again.
C. Helen warned Jane not to be di3appointed' in order to take the driving test again.
D. Helen asked Jane not to be disappointed and offered her another driving test.

Question 2 Sue lives in the house. The house is opposite my house.

A. Sue lives in the house it is opposite my house.
B. Sue lives in the house which is opposite my house.
C. Sue lives in the house which is opposite her house.
D. Sue lives in the house which opposite my house.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 3: 'Why not participate in the English Speaking Contest?'

A. He asked me to take part in the English Speaking Contest.
B. He told me not to participate in the English Speaking Contest.
C. He offered us to take part in the English Speaking Contest.
D. He suggested taking part in the English Speaking Contest.

Question 4: “The policeman said that the thief robbed the bank.”

A. The policeman congratulated the thief on robbing the bank.
B. The policeman thanked the thief for robbing the bank.
C. The policeman accused the thief of robbing the bank
D. The policeman warned the thief against robbing the bank.

Question 5: The weather is fine now, so we have a picnic.

A. We couldn’t have a picnic if the weather weren’t fine now.
B. If the weather had been fine now, we couldn’t have a picnic
C. If the weather isn’t fine now, we can have a picnic
D. We could have a picnic if the weather were fine now

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Independence Day in the United State is observed annually on the Fourth of July. For most communities throughout the nation, the traditional celebration includes parades down the main streets, picnics with hot dogs and lemonade, and, of course, a fireworks display at night. In some town across the country, however, special events are planned in honour of the occasion.
In Bristol, Rhode Island, fire engine teams from communities throughout New England compete in a contest to sqquirt water from their fire hoses. Flafstaff, Arizona hosts a huge three-day powwow, including a rodeo for twenty Native American tribes. The annual Eskimo games with traditional kayar races are held in Kotzebue, Alaska. Two auto races are always scheduled for the Fourth , including a four-hundred-mile stock car event at the Daytona Intrnational Speedway in Daytona, Florida, and an annual auto race up the fourteen-thousand-foot precipice at Pike’s Peak in Colorado.

Several small towns celebrate in other unique ways. Hannibal, Missouri, the hometown of Mark Twain, invited the children to participate in fence-painting contest, re-enacting a scene from Twain’s novel Tom Sawyer. Lititz, Pennsylvania congregates in the Limits Springs Park to light thousands of candles and arrange them in various shapes and imagines.

Question 6: The underlines word them in paragraph 3 refers to……………………

A. shapes
B. imagine
C. children
D. candles

Question 7: The underlined word “ huge” in text could be best replace by

A. amusing
B. large
C. complicated
D. exciting

Question 8: With which of the following topics iis the passaage mainly concerned?

A. Small towns in America.
B. Tradional celebrations for the Fourth of July.
C. The origin of the Indepence Day
D. Holidays in the United States

Question 9: The author mentions all of the following as ways the Fourth of July is celebrated Except.

A. races
B. dances
C. parades
D. fireworks

Question 10: It can be inferred from the passage that

A. towns in the Unitesd States celebrate July Fourth in different ways because their regional customs
B. the Fourth of July is not celebrated in large cities in the United States.
C. although fireworks are not legal, they are displayed on the Fourth of July.
D. the Fourth of July is celebrated in Canada as well as in the United States.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: By the time I got into town, the shops …………………..

A. close
B. closed
C. had closed
D. have closed

Question 12:How many __________are there in the competition?

A. participates
B. participations
C. participants
D. participative

Question 13:Before Tet, supermarkets and shops are full _______ goods.

A. in
B. of
C. with
D. for

Question 14: Your friendship should be based on ______ trust.

A. suspicious
B. blind
C. basic
D. mutual

Question 15:Tet is really a time of fun and _______ throughout the country.

A. festivals
B. celebrations
C. preparations
D. holidays

Question 16: “ ------------- ” is often celebrated on people’s 25th wedding anniversaries.

A . Silver Anniversary
B. Diamond Anniversary
C . Golden Anniversary
D. Cotton Anniversary

Question 17: I remember _______ you before , but I have forgotten your name

A. meeting
B. to met
C. met
D. meet

Question 18: I looked everywhere but I couldn't find _______ at all.

A. no one
B. someone
C. anyone
D. somebody

Question 19: All students denied ________ her.

A. having seen
B. of seeing
C. to see
D. having seeing

Question 20: If I spoke English, I …………… in America.

A. had studied
B. will study
C. would have studied
D. would study

Question 21: People believed that what they do on the first day of the year will _______ their luck during the whole year.

A. control
B. influence
C. exchange
D. result

Question 22: The final competition included the of three classes.

A. representatives
B. rules
C. judges
D. worksheets

Question 23: John insisted …………. Linda to the airport.

A. on to drive
B. driving
C. on driving
D. in driving

Question 24:

If I go shopping, I ________some food.

A. would buy
B. buy
C. will buy
D. would have bought

Question 25: If she ______ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.

A. hasn't been
B. hadn't been
C. weren't
D. wasn't

Question 26:

The second solution is to provide safe, ______ birth-control methods.

A. expensive
B. inexpensive
C. expensively
D. inexpensively

Question 27: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Cycling helmet
C. Cheap bicycle
B. Cycling in London
D. Bicycle market

Question 28: Accoding to the passage, cycling in London is………………..

A. tiring
B. easy
C. difficult
D. boring

Question 29: The word “it” in line 3 refers to…………..

A. Doing excersises
B. Passion
C. Excitement
D. Cycling

Question 30: The difficult of cycling in London is described in lines………..

A. 5-6
B. 3-4
C. 1-3
D. 8-9

Question 31: Accoding to the passage, all thte followings are true Except that

A. There are not manyn lanes especially for bikes
B. Some bikes in London are cheap.
C. It is compulsatry to wear a helmet when cycling in Britain.
D. Some cyclists do not want to buy expensive bikes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 32:

Why don’t you congratulate our son about passing his final exam?
A. about B. don’t you C. passing D. his final exam

Question 33:

Simon finds it hard for making friends with other children.

A. for making B. with C. it hard D. finds

Question 34:

I couldn’t fit all the boxes in the car, so I have to leave ones behind and pick it up later.

A. couldn’t B. boxes C. ones D. pick it up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 35:

A. church

B. chicken

C. machine

D. choice

Question 36:

A. window

B. whale

C. water

D. whole

Question 37:

A. raised

B. advantaged

C. handicapped

D. organized

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 38:

We wish you both- health and longevity.

A. exciting life B. happy life C easy life D. long life

Question 39:

We should take care of war invalids and family of martyrs.

A. look for B. look into C. look after D. look at

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 40:

The water in the lake is so clear that I can see the stems of the water-lilies

A. muddy B. hot C. warm D. cold

Question 41:

I don't like that man. There is a sneaky look on his face.

A. honest B . humorous C. furious D. guilty

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always … (41) … joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you. Your best friend may be someone you have known all your life or someone you have grown up with.

There are all sorts of things that can bring about this special … (42) …It may be the result of enjoying the same activities and sharing experiences. Most of us have met someone … (43)… we have immediately felt relaxed with as if we had known …..(44)….. for ages. However, it really takes you years to get to know someone well enough to consider your best friend.

To the majority of us, this is someone we … (45)… completely and who understands us better than anyone else. It’s the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets.

Question 42

A. have

B. spend

C. give

D. share

Question 43

A. relationship

B. relatives

C. relation

D. friends

Question 44

A. whose

B. what

C. that

D. which

Question 45

A. them

B. they

C. their

D. theirs

Question 46

A. true

B. truth

C. trust

D. untrue

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 47:

A. mutual

B. pursuit

C. sorrow

D. influence

Question 48:

A. television

B. information

C. competition

D. conservation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 49:

Tom: Have you ever travel to other parts of the country? – Mary: “ ”

A. Thank you C. Yes, I did last summer

B. Im fine . Thank you. D. Yes, I was ill last summer.

Question 50:

Hoa: What kind of volunteer work are you participating in?- Nam: “

A. Singing C. Dancing

B. Helping disadvantaged children D.Collecting stamps

Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11

1-B

2-B

3-D

4C

5-A

6-D

7-B

8-B

9-B

10-A

11-C

12-C

13-B

14-D

15-A

16-A

17-A

18-C

19-A

20-D

..............

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