Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 7 năm 2024 - 2025 sách Chân trời sáng tạo 5 Đề kiểm tra cuối kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 - Friends plus (Có đáp án, ma trận)

Đề thi tiếng Anh 7 Friends plus học kì 1 năm 2024 - 2025 tổng hợp 5 đề khác nhau có đáp án giải chi tiết kèm theo file nghe. Qua tài liệu này giúp các bạn học sinh lớp 7 ôn luyện củng cố kiến thức để biết cách ôn tập đạt kết quả cao.

TOP 5 Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 7 Friends plus được biên soạn bám sát chương trình học trong SGK. Qua đó giúp học sinh dễ dàng so sánh đối chiếu với kết quả mình đã làm. Đồng thời đây cũng là tài liệu hữu ích giúp giáo viên ra đề ôn luyện cho các em học sinh của mình. Bên cạnh đó các bạn xem thêm đề thi học kì 1 môn Ngữ văn 7 Chân trời sáng tạo, đề thi học kì 1 Toán 7 Chân trời sáng tạo.

Bộ đề thi tiếng Anh 7 Friends plus học kì 1 năm 2024 - 2025

1. Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 7 Friends plus - Đề 1

1.1 Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7

TRƯỜNG ………...

Họ và tên: ……………

Lớp: ………….

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I
NĂM HỌC 2024-2025
Môn: Tiếng Anh 7
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

LISTENING

Listen to five airport announcements. Choose the correct answer, A, B or C.

Bài nghe:

Announcement A

1. What time does the flight begin?

A. 9:00
B. 9:15
C. 9:25

Announcement B

2. What do passengers need to have?

A. Boarding passes
B. Passports
C. Both A and B Announcement C

3. Which gate should Gemma and Ryan come to right immediately?

A. Gate 4
B. Gate 14
C. Gate 40 Announcement D

4. What is the flight number?

A. Flight KL1050
B. Flight KN1051
C. Flight KN1055 Announcement E

5. What is the temperature in New York now?

A. 73º
B. 67º
C. 76º

Listen again and complete the table with the words in the box.

Bài nghe:

Announcement A

6. This flight is delayed by two hours because of . Announcement B

7. Flight FR3421 now boarding at . Announcement C

8. This is the final boarding call for passengers Gemma and Ryan Grey flying to Athens on .

Announcement D

9. All passengers with express boarding tickets and passengers travelling with young children please go to

. Announcement E

10. People have landed at JFK airport in New York where the local time is .

PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from others

Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from others.

13. A. clear B. hear C. near D. bear

12. A. house

B. cloud

C. shoulder

D. sound

13. A. fail

B. hair

C. chair

D. stair

Choose the bold word that has a different stress pattern from the others.

14. A. happy
B. slowly
C. polite
D. badly

15. A. comfortable

B. successful
C. creative
D. enormous

USE OF ENGLISH

Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence.

16. Her students English at 10 a.m. yesterday.

A. was studyin
B. were studying
C. studied

17. The alarm clock while she was sleeping.

A. ring
B. rang
C. was ringing

18. The children laugh when they play with their toys.

A. happily
B. creatively
C. rudely

19. There a small garden behind his house when he was a child.

A. was
B. be
C. were

20. In 1500 Leonardo da Vinci a flying machine.

A. wrote
B. ruled
C. invented

21. The woman often lunch at 12 p.m.

A. has
B. have
C. is having

22. I the call because the phone line is bad.

A. top up
B. hang up
C. speak up

23. How often does your sister a text message?

A. spend
B. give
C. send

24. My sister really likes to photos on social media.

A. copy
B. post
C. take

25. More and more Vietnamese people are in learning English.

A. happy
B. busy
C. interested

READING

Choose the option that best completes each blank in the passage.

How to take better photos

It isn’t easy to (26) wild animals because they are fast. You need to be very (27) to wait for a long time. Find a comfortable place and sit quietly. When people are doing sports, they don’t move slowly, so choose (28) where you stand. For dangerous sports, the photographer needs to be creative and good at the sport, too. Remember, it’s (29) to take photos of people you don’t know. Most people will happily say yes if you ask politely for permission.

Holiday photos are often bad, so if you want to take a good photo, think creatively and choose unusual (30)

26. A. photograph

B. take

C. kick

27. A. polite

B. creative

C. patient

28. A. fast

B. carefully

C. comfortably

29. A. polite

B. patient

C. rude

30. A. angles

B. permission

C. sports

Read the text and answer the questions.

People from the past – Short Interviews

Where do you live?

I live in Tenochtitlan. It’s Ok here. You can see a lot of familiar symbols on the walls of our temples, our palaces, and so on. They will tell you about our culture and our way of life. (Aztec)

Who do you admire?

I really admire Joan of Arc. She’s just a young girl, but she controls an enormous army. (French soldier)

What game or activity do you like?

I’m really into writing plays. It’s very exciting to see actors performing one of my plays. (Shakespeare)

What don’t you like?

I really don’t like losing battles. It’s terrible. (Joan of Arc)

What’s your favorite invention?

I really love the telescope. It’s a very useful invention. (Edwin Hubble)

31. What do the symbols tell us about?

A. Aztec’s culture
B. The temples
C. The palaces

32. What did Joan of Arc do?

A. She visited many places.
B. She had a fight with the French.
C. She controlled an army.

33. What did Shakespeare like doing?

A. performing plays
B. writing plays
C. playing games

34. What does Joan of Arc dislike?

A. winning battles
B. transporting slaves
C. losing battles

35. What invention does Edwin Hubble like most?

A. telescope
B. cars
C. flying machine

WRITING

Rewrite the following sentences with the given beginning in such a way that the meanings stay unchanged.

36. It is difficult to take photos of wild animals.

It is not .......................................

37. Sportsmen usually move fast.

Sportsmen don’t usually .......................................

38. Photographers need to think creative ways to take good photos. Photographers think .

39. You need to wait for a long time.

You need to be .......................................

40. Photographers also need to sit quietly. Photographers should find a .

1.2 Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7

1. C

6. bad weather

11. D

16. B

21. A

26. A

31. A

2. C

7. gate 21

12. C

17. B

22. B

27. C

32. C

3. B

8. flight EZ9753

13. A

18. A

23. C

28. B

33. B

4. A

9. gate 6

14. C

19. A

24. B

29. C

34. C

5. C

10. 18:30

15. A

20. C

25. C

30. A

35. A

36. It is not easy to take photos of wild animals.

37. Sportsmen don’t usually move slowly.

38. Photographers think creatively to take good photos.

39. You need to be patient.

40. Photographers should find a quiet place to sit.

2. Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 7 Friends plus - Đề 2

2.1 Đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 7

TRƯỜNG ……………………………….

Họ và tên: ……………………………….

Lớp: ………….

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I

NĂM HỌC 2024-2025

Môn: Tiếng Anh 7

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

A.LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0 pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (0.4 pt

A. cooked B. passed C. helped D. cleaned

A. orphanage B. word C. horse D. pork

II. Odd one out. (0.4 pt)

3. A. sunburn B. pimple C. puppet D. acne

4. A. milk B. portrait C. sculpture D. painting

II. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. (1.2 pts)

5. My mum spends two hours in the garden everyday. Her hobby is …………..

A. gardening
B. collecting stamps
C. making models
D. reading books

6. They like ………….. stamps.

A. collected
B. collects
C. collecting
D. collect

7. My brother often …………….. computer games in his free time.

A. collects
B. does
C. goes
D. plays

8. I and my father ………….. a lot of trees last month.

A. plant
B. planted
C. planting
D. plants

9. I have to go to the market now. There isn’t …………… food for our lunch.

A. a lot of
B. some
C. any
D. much

10. My younger brother isn’t as busy …………. me.

A. like
B. different from
C. different
D. as

B. READING (2.0 pts):

I. Read the text about “healthy living” and fill in the blanks using the words from the box. (1 pt)

like                        is         in            expensive                        places

Do you want to be fitter and healthier? Would you (11)……………… to look younger? Do you want to feel more relaxed? Then try a few days at a health farm. Health farm are becoming one of the most popular (12)………………… for a short break. I went to Henley Manor for a weekend. It’s the largest health farm (13)……….. the country but it isn’t the most expensive. After two days of exercise and massage I feel ten times better. But the best thing for me was the food. It was all very healthy of course but It was (14)…………….… too! If you are looking for something a little cheaper, try a winter break. Winter (15)………………….. the darkest and coldest season of the year, and it can also be the worst time for your body. We all eat too much and we don’t take enough exercise. A lot of health farms offer lower prices from Monday to Friday from November to March.

II. Read the text about “community service” and circle the best answer. (1 pt)

Choosing to volunteer takes up some of your time. Some people say that they do not have time to help others, so they don’t volunteer. But scientists say giving time to help others benefits us.

The first benefit of volunteering is that it helps us learn to be flexible. Volunteers have to be ready for changes and stay flexible when solving problems. Second, volunteering can improve our health because it requires us to be active. A report found that Americans who volunteer 100 hours or more a year are the healthiest people in the country. Third, volunteers have opportunities to develop more relationships. They often work in teams, and team members get to know each other and sometimes even become friends. Moreover, volunteers often help needy people, so they may feel thankful for what they have. For these reasons, volunteers are generally positive and are less likely to become depressed.

So if you have not joined a volunteer activity yet, think about it. You are likely to benefit from doing so.

16. True, False statement.

T

F

People shouldn’t take part in volunteer work.

17. What is the first benefit of volunteering?

A. It helps us learn to be flexible.
B. Volunteering can improve our health.
C. Volunteers have opportunities to develop more relationships.

18. How many benefits are mentioned in the passage?

A. two
B. three
C. four

19. Which sentence is NOT TRUE?

A. There are some good reasons why you should do volunteer work.
B. Volunteering can improve our health.
C. There is one benefit from doing volunteer work.

20. What does the word “it” in line six refer to?

A. volunteer
B. volunteering
C. benefit

C. WRITING (2.0 pts)

I. Find the mistakes in the following s.

..........

2.2 Đáp án đề thi cuối kì 1 tiếng Anh 7

i. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0 pts)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

D

B

C

A

A

C

D

B

C

D

B. READING (2.0 pts):

I. Read the text about “healthy living” and fill in the blanks using the words from the box. (1 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

11. like 12. place 13. in 14. expensive 15. is

II. Read the text about “community service” and circle the best answer. (1 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

16

17

18

19

20

F

A

C

C

B

C. WRITING (2.0 pts)

I. Find the mistakes in the following sentences (0.4 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

21. C 22. B

II. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged (0.8 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

23. Which do you like better, milk or lemonade?

24. I think Donald Duck is not as interesting as Donald Duck.

25. My mom and I love gardening.

26. My house is different from Nam’s house.

III. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pt)

Each right answer is 0,4 pt

27. Our school club collected plastic bottles for recycling two months ago.

28. How many apples do we need?

D. LISTENING (2 pts)

I. Listen to a text about “Music and Arts” and tick T/F. (1 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

29. F 30. T 31. T 32. F 33. T

II. Listen to the text about “Food and drink” and circle the best answer. (1 pt)

Each right answer is 0,2 pt

34. B 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. B

Listening tape

I.

My favorite singer is Dina Paucar. She is a very successful singer. She is from Peru and she is very popular all over the world. She is 38 years old, she is married and she has two kids. She is also a composer, her most popular songs are “Que lindo son tus ojos”, “Ami madrecita”, etc. In addition, Dina is a public person; she works in her concert and in her record company. When she is free, she works on television with advertising and promoting health campaigns. Dina is now very rich but she is a very generous person. She loves helping people a lot, especially poor and sick children. Like me, most of the Peruvian people admire Dina because she is the symbol of the generosity and success in Peru.

II.

The next time you are in a supermarket, pay attention to what you see and smell. Usually fresh fruit and vegetables are near the entrances. Is there a reason for this? Yes, there is. Fresh food near the entrance makes people think that all the items in the shop are fresh. Why is there a good smell of baking near the bread shelves? The bread is in plastic bags, but the smell (from bakery section) makes people feel hungry and they buy more. And what is next to the checkout? How many bags of sugar or rice do you see there? How many eggs? None? This is the place for sweets and magazines. People stand to wait for payment, see the sweets and magazines and buy them, without thinking about how much money they are spending.

2.3 Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7

PARTS

No. of

Ques

Mark

Task types

Re

Com

Low App

High App

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

LANGUAGE

COMPONENT

(2,0)

2

0.4

Indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently form the others

Sound: /d/, /t/, /id/; /ɔː/, /ɜː/

0,4

3

0,6

MCQs: Circle the best option. Words relating to hobbies, music and art, food and drink.

0,4

0,2

5

1,0

MCQs: Circle the best option: verbs, comparisons, tenses, verb after like/ dislike, quantities.

0,8

0,2

READING

(2,0)

5

1,0

Read the text and fill in the blank (with suitable words from the box)

0,8

0,2

5

1,0

Read the text and circle the best answer:

0,8

0,2

WRITING

(2,0)

2

0,4

(Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English

0,4

4

0,8

(Sentence transformation) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged

0,8

2

0,8

(Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given.

0,8

LISTENING

(2,0)

5

1.0

- Listen and tick T/ F

1.0

5

1.0

- Listen and circle the best answer

1,0

TOTAL(8,0)

38

8.0

3,8

2,4

1,0

0,8

SPEAKING

(2,0)

2

0,4

Introduction

0,4

5

1,0

Topic speaking

0,2

0,6

0,2

3

0,6

Questions and Answer

0,4

0,2

Grand Total

(10,0)

48

10,0

4,0

3,0

2,0

1,0

SPECIFICATION FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 7)

School year: 2024-2025

(60-minute Test)

PARTS

CONTENTS

No. of

Ques

Mark

Task types

Re

Com

Low App

High App

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

LANGUAGE

COMPONENT

(2,0)

Pronunciation:

-Sen 1: final sounds /d/ & /t/

-Sen 2: sounds /ɔː/& /ɜː/

2

0.4

Indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently form the others

0,4

Vocabulary:

-Sen 3: 1 word about music and art

-Sen 4: 1 word about food and drink

2

0,4

Odd one out

0,4

Vocabulary:

-Sen 5: 1 word about hobbies,

1

0,2

MCQs: Circle the best option

0,2

Grammar points:

-Sen 6: 1 sentence about V-ing after verbs of liking and disliking

-Sen 7: 1 sentence about verbs: make/ do/ collect/ play

-Sen 8: 1 sentence about past simple

--Sen 9: 1 sentence about quantities.

-Sen 10: 1 sentence about comparisons

5

1,0

MCQs: Circle the best option

0,8

0,2

READING

(2,0)

-Sen 11: 1 word about a verb

-Sen 12: 1 word about a noun

-Sen 13: 1 word about a preposition

-Sen 14: 1 word about an adjective

-Sen 15: 1 word about verb

5

1,0

(Cloze test) Read the text about “healthy living” and fill in the blank (with suitable words from the box)

0,8

0,2

-Sen 16: T/F statement

- Sen 17: Choose the best answer for a WH-question

-Sen 18: Choose the best answer for a WH-question

-Sen 19: Find the NOT TRUE statement

-Sen 20: What does the word “…” in the text refer to?

5

1,0

( Reading comprehetsion) Read the text about “community service” and circle the best answer

0,8

0,2

WRITING

(2,0)

-Sen 21: 1 sentence about verb

-Sen 22: 1 sentence about simple past

2

0,4

(Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English

0,4

-Sen 23: -1 sentence about prefer/ like better

-Sen 24: 1 sentence about comparisons

-Sen 25: 1 sentence about simple sentences.

-Sen 26: 1 sentence about comparisons

4

0,8

(Sentence transformation) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged

0,8

-Sen 27: 1 sentence about simple past

-Sen 28: 1 question with How much/ many

2

0,8

(Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given.

0,8

LISTENING

(2,0)

-Sen 29-33: T/F statement

5

1.0

- Listen to a text about “Music and Arts” and tick T/F

1.0

-Sen 34-38: Choose the best answer for a WH-question

5

1.0

- Listen to the text about “Food and drink” and circle the best answer

10

TOTAL(8,0)

38

8.0

3,8

2,4

1,0

0,8

SPEAKING

(2,0)

- Introduce personal information (hobby, school, houses, family, teacher, subject..)

2

0,4

Introduction

0,4

-Randomly take one vocab topic (hobby/healthy/healthy living/ community service/ music and art/ food and drink)

-5 minutes for preparation

- Look at the pictures and answer the question “What is this?”

-Spell one word

- two vocabs in situation

-Student point the word from teacher’s explanation

5

1,0

Topic speaking

0,2

0,6

0,2

-Answer three questions about one of the topics ((hobby/healthy/healthy living/ community service/ music and art/ food and drink)

3

0,6

Questions and Answers

0,4

0,2

Grand Total

(10,0)

48

10,0

4,0

3,0

2,0

1,0

..................

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