Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2024 - 2025 sách i-Learn Smart World 2 Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 (Có file nghe, ma trận)

Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World năm 2024 - 2025 gồm 2 đề thi, có đáp án, bảng ma trận và file nghe kèm theo cho các em ôn tập, nắm chắc cấu trúc đề thi để ôn thi hiệu quả hơn.

Với 2 đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World, còn giúp thầy cô có thêm nhiều kinh nghiệm để xây dựng đề thi giữa học kì 1 năm 2024 - 2025 cho học sinh của mình. Bên cạnh đó, có thể tham khảo thêm đề thi giữa kì 1 môn  Tiếng Anh 6 sách Cánh diều, Chân trời sáng tạo, Kết nối tri thức. Mời thầy cô và các em cùng theo dõi bài viết dưới đây của Download.vn:

1. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 i-Learn Smart World (Có file nghe)

1.1. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

I. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)

1. A. laundry B. hometown C. physics D. event

2. A. fantasy B. adventure C. exciting D. apartment

II. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)

3. The plates are dirty. I need to ________.

A. do the shopping
B. do the dishes
C. make the dishes
D. do the laundry

4. ________ stories are about magic, kings and queens.

A. Fantasy
B. Mystery
C. Comic
D. Adventure

5. Why don’t you sign ________ a book club?

A. in
B. out
C. up for
D. for

6. Your desk is very dirty. ________ is clean and tidy.

A. My
B. Me
C. Desk
D. Mine

7. I enjoy doing ________ because I can make pretty things from paper.

A. outdoor activities
B. arts and crafts
C. acting
D. in the drama club

8. Can Tho is famous ________ its floating markets and beautiful rivers.

A. on
B. for
C. in
D. with

9. Student A: “Where is your hometown?”

Student B: “________”

A. I love my hometown.
B. It’s in the east of Vietnam.
C. My hometown is a big city.
D. My hometown is very good for growing rice.

10. Student A: “What does the new teacher look like?”

Student B: “________”

A. He’s very friendly.
B. He teaches literature.
C. He’s tall and has brown hair.
D. He likes playing soccer.

11. What does the sign mean?

A. You cannot play soccer in this area.
B. People don’t have any balls.
C. There isn’t a soccer club.
D. People don’t like soccer.

12. What does the sign mean?

A. People don’t have cell phones here.
B. Please don’t use your cell phone here.
C. Cell phones are not good.
D. Please put your cell phone here.

III. Reading comprehension.

Read the following passage and complete the tasks. (1.5 points)

WHAT TO DO IN AMSTERDAM

Amsterdam, the capital city of the Netherlands, is a great place to spend time. It is in the west of the Netherlands. It’s easy to travel to this city because it has a big railway station and an airport – and it isn’t difficult to find a hotel. There’s a lot to see and do here. There are shops for people who enjoy shopping and restaurants with typical Dutch food, like stamppot or poffertjes. Or you can go to one of the museums, such as Van Gogh Museum. The best way to travel around Amsterdam is on a bike. There are 747,000 people here and over 600,000 bikes. After a busy day, a lot of visitors enjoy a cup of coffee at one of Amsterdam’s many koffiehuizen (coffee houses).

* Decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1 point)

* Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in each sentence. (0.5 points)

17. Amsterdam is in the _______ of the Netherlands.

A. north
B. south
C. east
D. west

18. The word ‘koffiehuizen’ in paragraph 2 means _______.

A. a cup of coffee
B. a place where people drink coffee
C. the name of a boat tour
D. the name of a museum

IV. Cloze test

Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

I live in Tallinn (19) __________ the north-west of Estonia. I’m 15 and I live with my parents and brother in a small apartment. On weekdays, I get up at 7 o’ clock in the morning. I walk to school – it’s very near my home and we don’t have a car. School (20) __________ at 8a.m. and ends at 2p.m. I study math, biology, history, art, music, English and German – and Estonian, of course. My favorite (21) __________ are English and history. After school, I go home (22) __________ lunch. I do my homework in the evening and I go to bed at 11p.m. In my free time, I go to the movies, visit friends and (23) __________ rollerblading. Our summer holiday is in July and August and we go to the Baltic Sea. Everyone (24) __________ swimming.

19. A. on B. in C. inside D. at

20. A. start B. begin C. starts D. has

21. A. clubs B. thing C. subject D. subjects

22. A. on B. for C. during D. with

23. A. go B. play C. have D. make

24. A. like B. don’t like C. loves D. plays

V. Verb forms and verb tenses

Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)

25. My house _________ (not have) a garage.

26. My dad usually _________ (do) the shopping at the weekend.

27. I really like _________ (use) computers.

28. I like _________ (chat) with my friends and my cousins.

VI. Rearrange the groups of words in the correct order to make complete sentences. (0.6 points)

29. is / Mary / red T-shirt / wearing / a / black shorts / and /.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

30. doing / I / activities / basketball / love / like / outdoor /.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

VII. Make questions for the underlined part. (1.2 points)

31. My sister Lucy cleans the kitchen.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

32. John is wearing a shirt and jeans.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

33. The city is famous for beautiful houses and museums.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

VIII. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (1.2 points)

34. There are three bedrooms in my house.

→ My house ……………………………………………………..…………………………………

35. I like literature and geography.

→ Literature and geography ….……………………………………..……………………………...

36. Mrs. Smith has a daughter, Anna.

→ Mrs. Smith is ………………………..……………………………………..………………………

EXTRA QUESTIONS

Pronunciation:

Find the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation. (0.25 points)

1. A. kitchen B. living C. idea D. dinner

Cloze test:

Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

My name’s James and I live in a small town in the east of Australia. There are four people in my family – my parents, my sister and me. There’s a garden in front of our house and behind the house, (19) __________ a garage for my father’s car and our bikes. On weekends, my sister and I are always (20) __________ on our bikes. Upstairs there’s my bedroom, my sister’s bedroom and a bathroom. Downstairs there’s my (21) __________ bedroom, a living room and a kitchen. Soccer is my favorite sport. My sister Susan is very good (22) __________ science. Her favorite subject is physics. She’s quiet (23) __________ she isn’t shy. She can be very funny. She’s also crazy about music and she’s in a singing club. I’m in a photography club. I love (24) __________ photos of my beautiful town.

19. A. is B. there’s C. it’s D. it

20. A. outdoor B. indoor C. go D. outside

21. A. parents B. parents’ C. parents’s D. parents a

22. A. at B. for C. in D. with

23. A. and B. because C. but D. also

24. A. make B. doing C. having D. taking

Verb forms and verb tenses:

Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (0.25 point)

1. My father sometimes _________ (teach) me to play chess.

Jumbled words:

Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.3 points)

1. My/ short/ has/ a/ hair/ big/ English/ brown/ nose/ and/ teacher/./

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

Make questions:

Make questions for the underlined part. (0.4 point)

1. My brother cleans the living room and takes out the garbage.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

Listening:

Listen to the conversation and decide whether the statements are True or False. (1 point)

1. The girl wears a uniform to school.

2. She plays basketball twice a week.

3. Her favorite subject is French.

4. Her school begins at 7 o’ clock.

1.2. Đáp án đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

I. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)

1. D

2. A

II. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)

III. Reading comprehension.

17. D

18. B

19. B

20. C

21. D

22. B

23. A

24. C

V. Verb forms and verb tenses

25. My house doesn’t have/ does not have (not have) a garage.

26. My dad usually does (do) the shopping at the weekend.

27. I really like using (use) computers.

28. I like chatting (chat) to my friends and my cousins.

VI. Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.6 points)

29. is/ Mary/ red T-shirt/ wearing/ a/ black shorts/ and/./

Mary is wearing a red T-shirt and black shorts. / Mary is wearing black shorts and a red T-shirt.

30. doing/ I / activities/ basketball/ love/ like/ outdoor/./

I love doing outdoor activities like basketball.

VII. Make questions for the underlined part. (1.2 points)

31. My sister Lucy cleans the kitchen.

Who cleans the kitchen?

32. John is wearing a shirt and jeans.

What is John wearing?

33. The city is famous for beautiful houses and museums.

What is the city famous for?

VIII. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (1.2 points)

34. There are three bedrooms in my house.

→ My house has three bedrooms.

35. I like literature and geography.

→ Literature and geography are my favorite subjects.

36. Mrs. Smith has a daughter, Anna.

→ Mrs. Smith is Anna’s mother.

EXTRA QUESTIONS

Pronunciation: 

1. C; 2. B; 3. D; 4. B; 5. A; 6. C; 7. D

8. My father sometimes teaches (teach) me to play chess.

9. My/ short/ has/ a/ hair/ big/ English/ brown/ nose/ and/ teacher/./

=> My English teacher has short brown hair and a big nose.

10. My brother cleans the living room and takes out the garbage.

What housework does your brother do?

Listening:

1. The girl wears a uniform to school. True

2. She plays basketball twice a week. False

3. Her favorite subject is French. True

4. Her school begins at 7 o’ clock. False

Tape scripts:

Interviewer: Good morning. I’d like to ask you some questions about your school. Is it okay?

Student: Sure, no problem.

Interview: What’s your school like? How many students are there?

Student: It’s quite a big school. There are about eight hundred students.

Interviewer: Do you have to wear a uniform?

Student: Yes, we do. We have to wear black skirts and white blouses.

Interviewer: What about sports? Is there a gym?

Student: Yes, there is. We sometimes play basketball there. But my favorite sport is swimming. There isn’t a swimming pool at the school, but there’s a sports center near the school. We go there twice a week to use the pool.

Interviewer: And what’s your favorite subject?

Student: French is my favorite subject.

Interviewer: What time does the school start?

Student: School starts at 8 o’ clock. I get up at 7. My mother makes me breakfast, then I walk to school. It’s near my house.

1.3. Ma trận đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KT GIỮA HỌC KỲ I – TIẾNG ANH 6 SMART WORLD

Trắc nghiệm: 22 câu (61%) Tự luận: 14 câu (39%)

Sentence transformation: 0.4đ/ câu

Rearrange sentences: 0.3đ/ câu

Others: 0.25đ/ câu

14 EXTRA SENTENCES:

1.4. File nghe đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

2. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách i-Learn Smart World

A. LISTENING:

I. Listening 1: (2.0 pts)

Part 1. Listen to the recording and circle the appropriate answer A, B or C. You will hear the recording twice (1.0 pt).

1. What is the weather like this morning?

A. It’s windy.
B. It’s sunny.
C. It’s rainy.

2. Where are Nick’s shoes now?

A. They are in the bedroom.
B. They are in the garden.
C. They are in the hall.

3. Who’s going to the shop with Daisy?

A. She’s going to with her friend.
B. She’s going to with her mom.
C. She’s going to with her grandpa.

4. What’s inside the cage?

A. A lizard.
B. A snake.
C. A bat

Part 2. Listen then fill in each numbered blank. You will hear the recording twice (1.0 pt).

0. Name of the film: Treasure

1. Film about: …………………………..

2. At cinema in: ………………………Street.

3. Go there by: …………………………..

4. Buy ticket at: …………………………..

B. PRONUNCIATION

II. Circle the word A, B, C or D which has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. (1 pt)

1. A. live B. dishes C. police D. milk

2. A. east B. clean C. seat D. great

3. A. lives B. works C. plays D. studies

4. A. fun B. study C. subject D. computer

C. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

III. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (2 pts)

1. What is your __________subject at school?

A. interest
B. favorite
C. liking
D. favorites

2. I enjoy doing __________. Because I can make presents for my family, like birthday cards and necklaces.

A. act
B. drama club
C. sign up
D. arts and crafts

3. Minh: “What's your favorite ice cream?” – Peter “ ___________ is chocolate.”

A. Mine
B. Yours
C. My
D. Your

4. Nguyễn Nhật Ánh is the __________ of several story books for teenagers such as Yellow Flowers on the Green Grass.

A. actor
B. character
C. author
D. maker

5. My older brother goes to the____________ everyday, so he is very healthy.

A. gym
B. balcony
C. yard
D. garage

6. In_________class, we study past events and people in Viet Nam and around the world.

A. physics
B. maths
C. history
D. literature

7. Can you please help me ___________? The clothes are dirty.

A. clean the house
B. plant the trees
C. sweep the floor
D. do the laundry

8. Adrian: “What about going shopping on Friday? ” – Sarah: “ ____________”.

A. Not a bad idea
B. Thank you!
C. That’s awful
D. No, I don’t

IV. Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete the following sentences. (1 pt)

Answers:

1.__________________
2.__________________
3.__________________
4.__________________

1. Where Linda (buy) ________ her breakfast every morning?

2. The students in my class really like (use) _________ computers.

3. My dad never (make)_________ delicious meals for my family.

4. Look! The students (skip)_________in the school yard.

V. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word from the box to complete the passage. (1pt)

cleans   and     school    lives    construction

Jane comes from the USA. She (1) __________ with her family in a village. It’s very peaceful (2) _______ quiet. Her family is very friendly and helpful. Her father works on a (3) __________ site and her mother works in a factory. Jane goes to school in the morning and she plays with her friends in the afternoon. In the evening, she (4)______________her room and does her homework. She goes to bed at 10 p.m.

D. READING

VI. Read the passage and do the tasks below. (1 pt)

At Hill bilingual school, students learn many subjects. For example, they learn Math in both Vietnamese and English, and they also study Science in English. Because of this, students spend their mornings and afternoons studying at school. Here, they only need to wear uniform on Tuesdays and Thursdays. Besides studying, students also play sports and join many clubs. For sports, there are swimming, basketball, frisbee, football, badminton to choose from. Once a week, students go to their favourite clubs to have some fun time.

Part 1. Decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F). (0.5 pt)

1. _____ The students wear uniform on Tuesdays and Thursdays.

2. _____ The students only study at school in the mornings.

Part 2.Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to answer the following questions. (0.5 pt)

3. What does the word ‘they’ in line 2 refer to?

A. The subjects.
B. The students.
C. The sports.

4. Why do the students join the clubs?

A. Because they want to have fun.
B. Because they don’t like studying other subjects.
C. Because they can play sports there.

E. WRITING

Part 1. Rewrite the sentences so that it means as the first ones, beginning with the given words. (0.5 pt)

1. His house has a big swimming pool.

"There is_____________________________________________________________

2. Why don’t we have a picnic at the park this weekend?

"Let’s _______________________________________________________________

Part 2. Rearrange the words to make sentences. (0.5 pt)

1. is / beautiful /grandmother’s house/ a / my / There / garden / in / .

" __________________________________________________________________

2. school / at / every day / My / 4:30 p.m / finishes / .

" ___________________________________________________________________

VIII. Write a paragraph (40- 60 words) about a book you like best. (1pt)

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