Bộ đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2023 - 2024 sách Chân trời sáng tạo 3 Đề kiểm tra học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 10 - Friends Global (Có đáp án)

Đề thi cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global năm 2023 - 2024 bao gồm 3 đề kiểm tra học kì 2 có đáp án giải chi tiết kèm theo file nghe.

TOP 3 Đề thi tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global cuối kì 2 được xây dựng với cấu trúc đề rất đa dạng, bám sát nội dung chương trình học trong sách giáo khoa lớp 10. Thông qua 3 đề kiểm tra cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global sẽ giúp các em rèn luyện những kĩ năng cần thiết và bổ sung những kiến thức chưa nắm vững để chuẩn bị kiến thức thật tốt. Với 3 đề kiểm tra cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global có đáp án kèm theo sẽ giúp các bạn so sánh được kết quả sau khi hoàn thành bài tập. Ngoài ra các bạn xem thêm đề thi học kì 2 Ngữ văn 10 Chân trời sáng tạo.

Bộ đề thi cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global năm 2023 - 2024

• 1. Đề thi cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global - Đề 1
• 2. Đề thi cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global - Đề 2

1. Đề thi cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global - Đề 1

1.1 Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 10

PART A. PHONOLOGY (1 pt)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. This is an example at the beginning (0).

0. A. answer B. solemn C. schooling D. visit

1. A. straw B. rousing C. music D. compose

2. A. photograph B. Stephen C. enough D. cough

3. A. group B. gift C. golf D. geography

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. This is an example at the beginning (0).

0. A. money B. army C. afraid D. people

1. A. anthem B. nation C. peaceful D. device

PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5 pts)

I. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D. This is an example at the beginning (0).

0. Jane often ______________ to bed at 10 pm.

A. go
B. to go
C. goes
D. has gone

1. _____________ we take the train instead of the bus? - It is faster.

A. How about
B. Lets
C. Why not
D. Why don’t

2. National park helps to _________________ endangered animals.

A. protect
B. produce
C. threaten
D. provide

3. If Minh ______________ enough money, he would buy a new house in Ha Noi.

A. has
B. had
C. had had
D. has had

4. Remember _____________ the letter for me tomorrow.

A. posting
B. post
C. will post
D. to post

5. I didn’t know your father was in ___________ hospital, so I didn’t come and visit him.

A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article

6. Walking 10 miles made him ___________________.

A. tiring
B. tired
C. tire
D. to tire

7. Every four years young people from all over Asia gather together to ______________ in Asian Games.

A. compete
B. fight
C. struggle
D. quarrel

8. It was not until last year ____________ he got a job.

A. when
B. that
C. which
D. where

9. Van Cao is one of the most well-known _____________ in Viet Nam

A. actors
B. authors
C. musicians
D. singers

10. A new library ________________ in my village since last January.

A. is built
B. was built
C. has been built
D. had been built

11. It would have been a good crop ________________________.

A. if the storm didn’t sweep
B. had the storm not swept
C. Unless the storm hadn’t swept
D. hadn’t the storm swept

12. John: What do you think of love story films?

Jane: _____________________

A. Oh, I find them interesting
B. Yes, I do
C. I think so
D. I watch them every day

II. Identify the letter A, B, C or D that must be changed for the sentences to be correct.

1. I don’t like talking to that guy. He is a very bored person.

2. Before he became a film star, he has been a stunt man for 5 years

3. He said that he would help her if she had asked him.

4. It was not until his mother came home that Dave does his homework

III. Put the correct form of the words in the brackets in the following sentences.

1. It was not until 1915 that the cinema (real)_______________ became an industry.

2. He has to repair this (break)_______________ chair.

3. Joan came first in the poetry (compete)____________________.

4. He is one of the most (bore)___________________ people I’ve ever met. He never stops talking and never says anything interesting.

PART C. REAADING COMPREHENSION (2 pts)

I. Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to fill in each gap.

The history of Film

The world’s first film was shown in 1895_______1______ two French brothers, Louis and Auguste Lumiere. Although it only ________2______ of short, simple scenes, people loved it and films have become popular ever since. The first films were silent, with titles on the screen to _________3_________ the story. Soon the public had _______4_______ favorite actors and actresses and, in this way, the first film stars appeared. In 1927, the first “talkie”, a film with sound, was shown and from then on, the public would only accept this kind of film.

1. A. from B. at C. by D. in

2. A. belonged B. held C. contained D. consisted

3. A. explain B. read C. perform D. join

4. A. its B. his C. our D. their

II. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Football

The idea of two teams pushing backwards or forwards to each other began in ancient Egypt as a ceremony celebrating good harvests. The Roman army of Julius Caesar brought it to Britain, where people quickly began to play it. Today’s association football, or soccer, comes directly from “association”, which students called “Assoc”.

The first description of English football appeared in 1775 in London. Rules of those days were not as strict as they are today, and games frequently ended in fights with broken arms and legs and even deaths. The number of players could exceed 500 and a game could last a day.

The birth of modern football took place in London in October 1863 when the football Association was formed, and in the following few years most of the rules as we know them were adopted. Today, big football games in London are played at Wembley Stadium, few miles from the centre of London.

1. Who brought the idea of football to Britain?

......................................................

2. Where did the word “soccer” come from?

......................................................

3. Were rules of those days as strict as they are today?

......................................................

4. When was modern football born?

......................................................

PART D. WRITING (2 pts)

I. Rewrite the following sentences so that the meaning stays the same as the given ones.

1. Tom didn’t learn hard enough to pass the final English exam. (Use the conditional sentence)

If Tom......................................................

2. Quan didn’t listen to everybody’s advice until he failed. (Use the structure “It was not until……”)

It was not ......................................................

3. We listen to pop music every day. We want to relax. ( Use to –infinitive )

We listen to ......................................................

4. She puts aside a part of her salary to buy a dictionary. ( Make a question for the underlined part)

......................................................

II. Use the given words or phrases to make the meaningful sentences.

1. Uncle Ho/ born/ Nghe An/ 1890/ a Confucian family.

......................................................

2. He/ be/ Vietnamese politician/ poet.

......................................................

3. He/ visit/ many countries/ world.

......................................................

4. Uncle Ho/ be/ founder of the People’s Republic of Vietnam/ and work/ all his life/ liberate and unify his country.

......................................................

1.2 Đáp án đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 10

PART A. PHONOLOGY

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D.

1. A 2. B 3. D

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D.

1. D

PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

I. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D.

II. Identify the letter A, B, C or D that must be changed for the sentences to be correct.

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C

III. Put the correct form of the words in the brackets in the following sentences.

1. really 2. broken 3. competition 4. boring

PART C. REAADING COMPREHENSION (2 pts)

I. Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to fill in each gap.

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D

II. Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

1. The Roman army of Julius Caesar (brought it to Britain).

2. The word “soccer” comes from “association”

3. No, they weren’t

4. (It/ Modern football was born) in October 1863.

PART D. WRITING (2 pts)

I. Rewrite the following sentences so that the meaning stays the same as the given ones.

1. If Tom had learned hard enough, he would have passed the final English exam.

( If Tom had learned hard enough, he wouldn’t have failed the ……)

2. It was not until he failed that he listened to everybody’s advice.

3. We listen to pop music every day to relax.

4. What does she put aside a part of her salary for?

II. Use the given words or phrases to make the meaningful sentences.

1. Uncle Ho was born in Nghe An in 1890 into a Confucian family.

2. He was a Vietnamese politician and poet

3. He visited many countries in the world

4. Uncle Ho was the leader of the People’s Republic of Vietnam and worked all his life to liberate and unify his country.

2. Đề thi cuối kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global - Đề 2

2.1 Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh 10

I. Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.

1.

A. statue
B. water
C. attract
D. angry

2.

A. digital
B. privacy
C. satellite
D. microphone

II. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others.

3.

A. opera
B. fountain
C. garden
D. enjoy

4.

A. recorder
B. decision
C. theory
D. computer

III. Choose the best one (A, B, C or D) to complete the sentence or replace the underlined word.

5. The medicine ________ at a high place where the children can’t reach.

A. must be kept
B. should keep
C. have to be keep
D. are kept

6. Until the 12^th century people in London had burnt ________ for fuel.

A. stone
B. wood
C. glass
D. rubber

7. Turn _________ the TV. It’s time for my favourite programme.

A. on
B. off
C. up
D. down

8. Mary __________ her keys. Can you help her look for them?

A. has lost
B. have lost
C. had lost
D. lost

9. The tour guide drove us through the __________, and we could watch wild animals moving freely from our car.

A. square
B. harbour
C. safari park
D. museum

10. I prefer to sit in a ___________ seat on a plane so I can see the view.

A. window
B. aisle
C. exit
D. entrance

11. Let’s get some plants from the __________ for Mum’s birthday.

A. estate agent’s
B. greengrocer's
C. garden centre
D. hairdresser’s

12. My brother ___________at home very often if he got that job in the restaurant.

A. won’t eat
B. wouldn’t eat
C. will eat
D. would eat

13. This shirt hasn’t got a __________. I don’t know how much it is.

A. brand name
B. price tag
C. trademark
D. wrapping paper

14. Look at that truck! It__________________ .

A. will crash
B. is go to crash
C. is going to crash
D. is will crash

15. You will have more free time with a _________ job.

A. part-time
B. full-time
C. nine-to-five
D. shift

IV. Complete the sentences with correct form of words in the brackets.

16. The mobile phone of the future will stretch your _________ even further. (IMAGINE)

17. The new _________ for the new generation of cars will come from the robotics: robocars will be cars that drive themselves. (INSPIRE)

18. Mobile phone technology has improved __________ in recent years. (DRAMA)

19. My favourite __________ is J.K. Rowling. I love her books. (NOVEL)

20. It’s very difficult to decide which _________ has changed human life the most. (INVENT)

V. Read the texts choose the best answer to fill in each blank.

I’ve been (21) ________ a number of holidays without my parents, but the first holiday was two years ago, when I was sixteen. Six of us decided to go backpacking in Wales during the school holidays. I booked cheap hotels (22) ________ we left. The first two days were fine. But at the end of the second day, we lost our way. It was pouring with rain and it was getting dark. We eventually came to a farmhouse and knocked on the door. We were so dirty and wet (23) ________ they didn’t let us into the house. We had to wait in the garage! But they let us phone the hotel. Anyway, the hotel manager kindly (24) ________ a car for us. But the next day it was still raining so we decided to take the train home. I’ve learned why no one goes backpacking in Britain in March – it rains non-stop and the fields (25) ________ in deep mud. I’ve never had such a miserable time! My holidays since then have been in warm places with dry weather!

21.

A. in
B. on
C. with
D. at

22.

A. before
B. after
C. when
D. while

23.

A. as
B. which
C. that
D. because

24.

A. gave
B. took
C. booked
D. sent

25.

A. cover
B. are covered
C. were covered
D. are covering

VII. Now read the whole text. Choose the correct answers (A-D).

Mark Harris is a research scientist at Rothera Research Station, on Adelaide Island in the Antarctic. We asked Mark what were the best and the worst things about living in the Antarctic.

‘The best thing about being here is the wonderful view,’ Mark said. ‘On my first day, I was unlucky because I was ill and had to spend a few days in bed. The station’s doctor thought I’d eaten something bad at home, or in the station canteen, but I didn’t even go to the canteen. I think it was the meal I had on the journey across – it didn’t taste right to me. And so I was pretty miserable at the beginning. But then I lay in bed during those first days and watched icebergs drifting past my window. It was amazing! In summer, I like to be outside as much as possible. One of my jobs is to fly around with other scientists in a helicopter making observations and checking on experiments. We fly over the most fantastic places. Our pilots are really skilled. They can land anywhere – even on glaciers!’

‘I try not to think about the bad things, but there are some, of course. I like the food – it’s actually really good – but we don’t have fresh fruit and vegetables. I often think about the countryside: the green grass, the trees, and the flowers. I always look forward to seeing it again. But Rothera is great because there’s always someone to talk to if you’re feeling unhappy, and someone will always help you with a difficult task. But at the same time people understand when you want to be alone.’

‘There’s always plenty to do as well. You might think that living in the middle of so much snow is boring, but it isn’t at all. On good days I like to ski and snowboard, and watch the wildlife. I play badminton and table tennis at the station, and some nights I go to the gym, so fitness isn’t a problem. We have video nights and games nights, and we even have cookery and woodwork lessons. I’ve actually learned some great new skills since I’ve been here. I’ve also had two holidays, camping. Of course, I’d like to have many friends and family with me, and I always think about that, but that can’t happen for a while. I have to be patient. All in all, being at Rothera is a great experience.’

26. Mark thinks he ate something bad _________

A. a few days after he arrived at the station.
B. during his trip to the station.
C. before he left home.
D. on the day he arrived at the station.

27. During the summer months, Mark _________

A. files a small plane.
B. travels across the island.
C. works alone.
D. spends his time inside the station.

28. Mark sometimes feels bad because he _________

A. dislikes the meals at the station.
B. never has time alone.
C. misses the countryside.
D. finds the work difficult.

29. Mark would like to _________

A. see his family more often.
B. have a holiday on the island.
C. learn some new skills.
D. have more opportunity to get fit.

30. The purpose of the article is to _________

A. advertise jobs for scientists in the Antarctic.
B. make people aware of the problems in the Antarctic.
C. explain how to become a scientist in the Antarctic.
D. describe everyday life for a scientist in the Antarctic.

VIII. Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence.

31. Companies make boxes out of cardboard because it’s a cheap material.

=> Boxes ___________________________________.

32. The last time I cooked was 3 years ago.

=> I _______________________________________.

33. Ravi said, “The concert ended yesterday.”

=> Ravi told me ______________________________.

34. Samantha learned to ski. Then she went on the skiing holiday. (before)

=> Samantha ________________________________.

35. The girl is my sister. She is wearing a pastel purple dress.

=> The girl __________________________________.

IX. Listen to talks about how people spent their holidays. Choose True or False for the following statements.

Bài nghe:

36. Hilary went on an adventure holiday with local farmers.

37. Kevin went to Austria.

38. Kevin helped escort baby turtles to the environment.

39. Terry visited a national park in Vietnam.

40. His smartphone was taken by the monkey.

2.2 Đáp án đề thi học kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10

31. Boxes are made out of cardboard because it is cheap material.

32. I haven’t cooked for 3 years.

33. Ravi told me the concert had ended the day before.

34. Samantha had learned to ski before she went on the skiing holiday.

35. The girl who is wearing a pastel purple dress is my sister.

............

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