Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2023 - 2024 (Sách mới) 10 Đề thi tiếng Anh giữa kì 1 lớp 10 (Có ma trận, đáp án)

Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2024 - 2025 tổng hợp 10 đề khác nhau có đáp án giải chi tiết kèm theo. Qua tài liệu này giúp các bạn học sinh ôn luyện củng cố kiến thức để biết cách ôn tập đạt kết quả cao.

TOP 10 Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 gồm 3 sách English Discovery, Friends Global, Global Success. Hi vọng qua đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 sẽ giúp các em học sinh lớp 10 dễ dàng ôn tập, hệ thống kiến thức, luyện giải đề, rồi so sánh kết quả thuận tiện hơn. Đồng thời đây cũng là tài liệu hữu ích giúp giáo viên ra đề ôn luyện cho các em học sinh của mình. Vậy sau đây là trọn bộ 10 đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2024 - 2025 mời các bạn cùng theo dõi. Ngoài ra các bạn xem thêm: bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Ngữ văn 10.

Bộ đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 10 năm 2024 - 2025

• 1. Đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 10 Global success 
• 2. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 English Discovery
• 3. Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global 

1. Đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 10 Global success

Đề thi tiếng Anh giữa kì 1 lớp 10

I. LISTENING: (2.0 pts)

Bài nghe:

PART 1: For questions 1-4, listen to Dave talking about his experience of doing a volunteer work. Choose the best option A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversation twice.

Question 1. When did Dave participate in the campaign?

A. last year
B. last weekend
C. last week
D. last month

Question 2. What is the name of the campaign?

A. Green issues
B. Green living
C. Go Green
D. Green house

Question 3. Who was the leader of each group?

A. teacher
B. John
C. Mary
D. Alice

Question 4. How many trees did they plant in their school?

A. 1
B. 6
C. 9
D. 15

PART 2: For questions 5-8, Listen again and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).You will hear the conversation twice.

Question 5. Dave and his schoolmates planted trees in 4 schools.

Question 6. They only planted small trees.

Question 7. Dave’s team planted 50 trees in total.

Question 8. Dave was tired but still happy.

II. LANGUAGE: (3.0 pts)

PART 1:Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 9. A. housework B. reduce C. famous D. music

Question10. A. perform B. enjoy C. laundry D. adopt

PART 2: Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11. They decided to Japan for their summer holiday.

A. going
B. to go
C. go
D. to going

Question 12. Doing housework helps family bonds.

A. strengthen
B. damage
C. divide
D. support

Question 13. Oh, I forgot my course book this morning. Can I borrow yours? I it back to you after using it.

A. will give
B. give
C. am going to give
D. going to give

Question 14. My sister usually charge of doing the washing-up in her family.

A. take
B. is taking
C. takes
D. will take

Question 15. A lot of students in my school are going to take part the Go Green Weekend event.

A. for
B. of
C. in
D. on

Question 16. We’ll organize more activities to local people’s awareness of environmental issues.

A. take
B. get
C. have
D. raise

Question 17. Bamboo is considered to be one of the most building materials.

A. eco-friendly
B. chemical
C. harmful

D. polluted

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 18. Sue plans (A) study (B) abroad next year according to (C) her parent’s advice.(D)

Question 19. I really love his music because (A) he is a talent (B) artist who (C)can write music and play many musical(D) instruments.

Question 20. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.

Tom was disappointed because he was eliminated in the third round of the competition .

A. performed
B.preferred
C. voted
D. removed

I. READING : (2.5pts)

PART 1: Read the passage and circle the best option for each the numbered blanks from 21to 25.

River pollution (21) _ when pollutants are not removed from sewage and are discharged into the river. River water is a very important source of freshwater required to sustain life. We need a constant supply of fresh water for (22) , cooking and washing. Animals living near the river, as well as fishes and aquatic plants, also depend (23) clean river water. When heavy rainfall occurs, pollutants accumulated within the boundaries of the catchment area may be washed into river channels. These pollutants include a (24) of agrochemicals like fertilizers (25) insecticides .

Question 21. A. occurs B. occur C. occurred D. had occurred

Question 22. A. drink B. drinking C. to drink D.drunk

Question 23. A. in B. at C. on D.for

Question 24. A. vary B. variety C.various D.variously

Question 25. A. and B. or C. but D.so

PART 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (from 26 to 30).

Adele has been one of the world's most well-known singers and songwriters in recent years. Born in North London in 1988, Adele started singing at a young age and she was mostly influenced by the Spice Girls. At the age of 16, Adele composed her first hit song, "Hometown Glory".

When she was a student at the British School for Performing Arts and Technology, she recorded three songs for a class project. All these songs later were posted on MySpace.com and became very popular. As a result, she was offered a record deal from XL Recordings after her graduation. Her first album "19" debuted at number one on the British charts in 2008.

In March 2008, she did a short tour in America and soon her international career began. In 2011, her second album, "21" came out. The music on this album was different from the soul music of "19". It was influenced by American country music, which Adele was listening to during her tour.

In 2012, she wrote and recorded "Skyfall" for the James Bond film of the same name. The song sold more than two million copies worldwide and for it, Adele won the Academy Award for Best Original Song. Since 2012, Adele has won many more awards. She has many fans including other famous singers because they admire her unique voice and her passion for music.

(Adapted from "Adele" by Learning Resource Network)

Question 26. Adele began writing her first song .

A. when she was 16
B. at a young age
C. after her graduation
D. when she did a short tour in America

Question 27. Adele’s first album “19” was .

A. country music
B. classical music
C. pop music
D. the soul music

Question 28. After Adele graduated from her art school, .

A. she posted her songs on My Space
B. she started singing and writing songs
C. she got a contract with a recording label
D. she started her career in America

Question 29. The word "came out" in paragraph 3 can be replaced by .

A. was composed
B. was released
C. was offered
D. was awarded

Question 30. The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to .

A. the song "Skyfall"
B. the Academy Award
C. Adele's best song
D. the 2012 James Bond film

II. WRITING: (2.5pts) PART 1:

Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.

Question 31. The students collect the rubbish in the schoolyard twice a week.

The rubbish ……………………………………………………………

Question 32. Her parents don’t allow her to join outdoor activities on Saturdays.

Her parents don’t let ……………………………………………………

Combine each pair of sentences into one by using the given words.

Question 33. Tim is sleeping. You can't speak to him at the moment. (SO)

…………………………………………………….

Question 34. My mum does the cooking. My dad does the heavy lifting. (AND)

…………………………………………………….

PART 2: Write an email to your friend, Mary; and talk about your family routines. To: Mary
Subject: My family routines Hi Mary,

How are you? We’re all doing fine here. You asked me about my family routines. Well, we have a number of routines to help us learn life skills as well as build family bonds. Here are three main ones.

…………………………………………………................

....................................................................................

…………………………………………………................

....................................................................................

What do you think about my family routines? Please, write back soon and let me know.

Best wishes,

*Suggested ideas:

-household chores

-first

-second

-finally

Đáp án đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Anh 10 Global success

I.TRẮC NGHIỆM: (Mỗi câu đúng 0.25 đ)

II. TỰ LUẬN

Part 1: (Mỗi câu tự luận 0,375 đ)

Question 3 1. The rubbish in the schoolyard is collected twice a week by the students.

Question 3 2. Her parents don’t let her join outdoor activities on Saturdays.

Question 3 3. Tim is sleeping, so you can't speak to him at the moment.

Question 3 4. My mum does the cooking, and my dad does the heavy lifting.

Ma trận đề thi giữa kì 1 Anh 10 Global success

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ I - NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10

TEST SPECIFICATION: MID- FIRST- TERM TEST –ENGLISH 10- GLOBAL SUCCESS

School Year: 2023-2024

.............

2. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 English Discovery

I. PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

1.

A. follow
B. social
C. post
D. online

2.

A. media
B. chemistry
C. message
D. networking

Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the rest.

3.

A. geology

B. biology

C. archaeology

D. psychology

4.

A. linguist
B. analyst
C. psychologist
D. activist

5.

A. conservation
B. linguistics
C. astronomy
D. biology

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

6. The website that I often __________ the most is YouTube. I spend at least 2 hours watching videos everyday.

A. get
B. visit
C. go
D. post

7. Vinh used to __________ Chemistry, but now he hates it.

A. love
B. loved
C. loving
D. loves

8. To listen to music without Internet connection, you need to __________ music to your smartphone in advance.

A. download
B. update
C. watch
D. follow

9. My dad __________ his social media profile when his laptop suddenly turned off.

A. updated
B. updates
C. is updating
D. was updating

10. I cannot type on my laptop because the __________ is broken. I need to fix it as soon as possible.

A. laser printer
B. mouse
C. keyboard
D. browser

11. What __________ at 8 a.m. yesterday? - I __________ Mathematics.

A. do you do - study
B. did you do - studied
C. were you doing - was studying
D. are you doing - am studying

12. I want to study __________ because I am interested in building software.

A. chemistry
B. psychology
C. linguistics
D. computer science

13. People in the past __________ letters to communicate, but now they send text messages instead.

A. are writing
B. write
C. used to write
D. were writing

14. __________ is a natural science that studies objects in space, such as the sun, the moon, planets, and stars.

A. Astronomical
B. Astronomy
C. Astronaut
D. Astronomic

15. Google is the most popular __________ in the world. It was originally developed in 1997.

A. search engine
B. smartphone
C. desktop
D. broadband

16. Hoa wants to become a __________ because she wants to help others overcome their mental illnesses.

A. psychology
B. psychological
C. psychologist
D. psychologically

17. She could not log in to her Facebook account as she forgot her __________.

A. password
B. text message
C. profile
D. site

18. I rarely __________ celebrities on social media because I do not care about their private lives.

A. watch
B. look
C. follow
D. chase

19. Nguyen Ha Dong __________ Flappy Bird in 2013, one of the most downloaded free mobile games.

A. create
B. was creating
C. creates
D. created

Write the correct forms of the verbs in brackets.

20. When I was a teenager, I __________ (go) online almost every day.

21. My smartphone __________ (drop) when I was taking a picture.

22. My dad __________ (become) an archaeologist in 1984. He still loves studying about our ancestors.

23. I used to be a marine biologist, but now I __________ (be) a conservationist.

24. I __________ (study) Mathematics when I heard a loud noise.

25. Her parents used __________ (take) her to the park every weekend. Now, they are too busy to do that.

III. READING

Read the passage. Match the headings with the paragraph. There is one extra heading.

A modern genius

Stephen Hawking was one of the most famous scientists in the world. He was born in Oxford in 1942 and lived there till the day he moved to Cambridge to complete his PhD. Before this, however, people already knew that he was intelligent. When he was a kid, he enjoyed Maths and Science in school very much. He found both subjects very easy, and it was while he was studying there that his friends began to call him 'Einstein', for fun.

Hawking's first university was actually Oxford, where he studied Physics and Chemistry. During his studies there, at the age of 21, he became very sick and had problems speaking and moving. He needed the support from a wheelchair and a computer for communication to live a normal life. When he realised he was extremely ill, he decided to work harder. This was because he really wanted to finish his PhD before he died.

Hawking finished his PhD when he was only 24. Hawking’s contributions to physics earned him many exceptional achievements. In 1974, he became one of the Royal Society’s youngest fellows. In 1977, he was a professor of gravitational physics at Cambridge. Later he wrote over 15 very popular science books. One of his most popular books, “A Brief History of Time”, appeared on the Sunday Times bestseller list for over 200 weeks. He died at the age of 76 – definitely too early, as many say.

26. Paragraph 1: _________

27. Paragraph 2: __________

28. Paragraph 3: __________

A. PhD journey
B. Career achievements
C. Physical disability
D. Early childhood

Read the passage and decide whether the sentences are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG).

29. Since Stephen Hawking was a child, he was a smart kid.

30. Stephen Hawking was Einstein’s friend.

31. Cambridge was Hawking’s first university, then he moved to Oxford.

32. Hawking became sick when he was an undergraduate.

33. He became one of the Royal Society’s fellows after he started teaching at Cambridge.

34. “A Brief History of Time” was the only popular book by Stephen Hawking.

35. He passed away before reaching the age of 80.

IV. WRITING

Write sentences from the prompts.

36. I / run / in the park / when / Hoang / call/ me.

=> _____________________________________.

37. smartphones/ not/ popular/ until/ end/ last century.

=> _____________________________________.

38. I/ sleep/ when/ alarm/ ring.

=> _____________________________________.

39. What / you / do / this time / yesterday?

=> _____________________________________.

40. As soon as / I / graduate/ in 2000/ I/ become/ linguist.

=> _____________________________________.

----------------THE END----------------

Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 10

36. I was running in the park when Hoang called me.

37. Smartphone were unpopular until the end of the last century.

38. I was sleeping when the alarm rang.

39. What were you doing at this time yesterday?

40. As soon as I graduated in 2000, I became a linguist.

3. Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global

I. LISTENING

Task 1. LISTEN to audio 1.20 and MATCH the speakers (1-4) with their correct situations (A-E), there is ONE situation that you DON’T NEED.

1/ Fred

2/ Sally

3/ Chris

4/ Celina

A. doesn’t consider himself/herself a courageous person
B. loves being in wild, far-away places
C. says people who aren’t strong and fit shouldn’t try base jumping
D. really didn’t enjoy base jumping
E. says base jumping isn’t popular with older people

Task 2. LISTEN to audio 1.19 and WRITE T (True) or F (False) for the following statements (a-f).

a) In Alaska, there are only eagles and bears in the wild.

b) Exploring the caves in Mexico need no experience.

c) Exploring the caves in Mexico last for five days.

d) The highlight of the Philippine tour is Mount Pinatubo.

e) Mount Pinatubo erupted in 1991 and formed Lake Pinatubo.

f) Forest Trekkers offer scenery that most tourists never reach.

II. GRAMMAR

Task 1. Choose the word /phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence

1. It ____________ heavily last August.

A. is rain
B. was raining
C. rained
D. rain

2. What ___________ when I phoned yesterday?

A. were you doing
B. do you do
C. did you do
D. do you did

3. I ______________ the accident when I was waiting for the Grab taxi.

A. was seeing
B. saw
C. had seen
D. has been seen

4. While we ____________________ in the park, Mary fell over.

A. ran
B. runs
C. is running
D. were running

5. _____________________ History at 6 p.m. yesterday??

A. Are you study
B. Did you study
C. Have you studied
D. Were you studying

6. She ________ the gold medal in 1986.

A. won
B. win
C. to won
D. to win

7. There ____________ some big trees in the yard when I was 5.

A. is
B. are
C. was
D. were

8. For a long time people ________ that the world was flat and that people could fall off the edge.

A. may think
B. thought
C. are thought
D. thinks

9. Nick: “I last _______ Susan at her house two _______ ago.”

A. saw/ year
B. seen/ week
C. see/ months
D. saw/ months

10. Jack: “What did you ______ last night?” Jeremy: “I ______ on my Science project.”

A. do/ works
B. do/ worked
C. doing/ working
D. does/ works

Task 2. Complete the text with the correct past simple or past continuous form of the verbs in brackets.

It was a cold, dark evening. The snow was falling fast and an icy wind was blowing. As Rick (1)__________________(walk) home along the empty street, he saw a strange flash of light in the distance. He (2)__________________(stop). “Maybe it was just my imagnation,” he thought. Then, suddenly, the light (3)__________________(flash) again. As he was watching it, he ran towards he light when something hit his heads. Rick (4)__________________ (fall) onto the snow. A car door opened and a man (5)_________________(step) out in front of him …

III. READING

Task 1. Read the dialogue and write the answer True or False.

Amy: Are you excited about the start of school?

John: No, not really. I quite like school, but it’s not my favourite thing in the world.

Amy: We’re very different. I really enjoy learning new things. What subjects do you like?

John: I love IT because I’m interested in computers. I’m also keen on drama. I think acting is great.

Amy: Really? We’re very different that way too. I’m just too scared in front of people. What do you think of maths?

John: Actually, I really don’t like maths. I just can’t understand it. It’s terrible.

Amy: Different again! I like maths and I enjoy science a lot too.

John: OK, science isn’t bad. It’s actually kind of interesting.

Amy: Well, I’m happy we agree on something …

1. Amy likes school a lot.

2. John love IT because computers are interesting.

3. Amy is keen on drama and acting.

4. John has a negative view about maths.

5. Amy and John are totally different.

Task 2. Read and answer the questions.

BASE jumping is an extreme sport. It is similar to skydiving, but there are important differences. Firstly, the jumps are much lower – usually no more than six hundred metres. And secondly, there is no aircraft. Instead, participants jump from some kind of bridge, building or cliff. The first BASE jump took place in 1912 in New York, when Frederick Law jumped for the Statue of Liberty. In the 1960s and 70s the sport became more popular, partly thanks to Carl Boenish. He made documentaries about BASE jumping and also thought of the name. He died in 1984 while he was jumping in Norway. BASE jumping is a thrilling experience, but it is very risky too.

1. What is the text about?

2. Is BASE jumping the same as skydiving?

3. Where do participants jump from in this sport?

4. When did first BASE jump take place?

5. Did Carl Boenish make the first BASE jumping?

IV. WRITING

Read the invitation. Answer the question and write a reply (100-120 words) using the Writing Strategy (p.31) and Hint below.

Hi Nam,

I’m hosting a party to celebrate New Year eve. It's on Friday 1 January, the party will start at 5:30pm.

We will go to Nguyen Hue street to watch the musical show at 6:00pm. Many famous singers like My Tam, Son Tung Mtp, Chipu,... will be performing. I can’t wait to see them.

In the evening, we’re having hot pot at Haidilao, there is so much delicious food, drinks and services that we can try. Hit me up if you can join.

Vy

PS: If you are busy in the afternoon, you can meet me at Haidilao in district 1.

Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10

I. LISTENING

Task 1.

Task 2.

II. GRAMMAR

Task 1.

Task 2.

III. READING

Task 1.

Task 2.

1. The test is about BASE jumping.

2. No, it isn’t.

3. Participants jump from some kind of bridge, building or cliff.

4. The first BASE jump took place in 1912.

5. No, he didn’t.

.............

Tải file tài liệu để xem thêm đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10