Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2025 - 2026 (Sách mới) 12 Đề thi tiếng Anh giữa kì 1 lớp 10 Friends Global, English Discovery, Global Success (Có đáp án)

Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2025 - 2026 tổng hợp 12 đề khác nhau có đáp án giải chi tiết kèm theo. Qua tài liệu này giúp các bạn học sinh ôn luyện củng cố kiến thức để biết cách ôn tập đạt kết quả cao.

TOP 12 Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 gồm 3 sách English Discovery, Friends Global, Global Success. Hi vọng qua đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 sẽ giúp các em học sinh lớp 10 dễ dàng ôn tập, hệ thống kiến thức, luyện giải đề, rồi so sánh kết quả thuận tiện hơn. Đồng thời đây cũng là tài liệu hữu ích giúp giáo viên ra đề ôn luyện cho các em học sinh của mình. Vậy sau đây là trọn bộ 10 đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2025 - 2026 mời các bạn cùng theo dõi. Ngoài ra các bạn xem thêm: bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Ngữ văn 10.

1. Đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 10 Global success

Đề thi tiếng Anh giữa kì 1 lớp 10

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO......…
TRƯỜNG THPT ........................

KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ I NĂM HỌC 20252026

Môn: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10

Thời gian: 60 phút (không tính thời gian giao đề)

I. LISTENING: (2.0 pts)

Bài nghe:

PART 1: For questions 1-4, listen to Dave talking about his experience of doing a volunteer work. Choose the best option A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversation twice.

Question 1. When did Dave participate in the campaign?

A. last year
B. last weekend
C. last week
D. last month

Question 2. What is the name of the campaign?

A. Green issues
B. Green living
C. Go Green
D. Green house

Question 3. Who was the leader of each group?

A. teacher
B. John
C. Mary
D. Alice

Question 4. How many trees did they plant in their school?

A. 1
B. 6
C. 9
D. 15

PART 2: For questions 5-8, Listen again and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).You will hear the conversation twice.

Question 5. Dave and his schoolmates planted trees in 4 schools.

Question 6. They only planted small trees.

Question 7. Dave’s team planted 50 trees in total.

Question 8. Dave was tired but still happy.

II. LANGUAGE: (3.0 pts)

PART 1:Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 9. A. housework B. reduce C. famous D. music

Question10. A. perform B. enjoy C. laundry D. adopt

PART 2: Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11. They decided to Japan for their summer holiday.

A. going
B. to go
C. go
D. to going

Question 12. Doing housework helps family bonds.

A. strengthen
B. damage
C. divide
D. support

Question 13. Oh, I forgot my course book this morning. Can I borrow yours? I it back to you after using it.

A. will give
B. give
C. am going to give
D. going to give

Question 14. My sister usually charge of doing the washing-up in her family.

A. take
B. is taking
C. takes
D. will take

Question 15. A lot of students in my school are going to take part the Go Green Weekend event.

A. for
B. of
C. in
D. on

Question 16. We’ll organize more activities to local people’s awareness of environmental issues.

A. take
B. get
C. have
D. raise

Question 17. Bamboo is considered to be one of the most building materials.

A. eco-friendly
B. chemical
C. harmful

D. polluted

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 18. Sue plans (A) study (B) abroad next year according to (C) her parent’s advice.(D)

Question 19. I really love his music because (A) he is a talent (B) artist who (C)can write music and play many musical(D) instruments.

Question 20. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the following question.

Tom was disappointed because he was eliminated in the third round of the competition .

A. performed
B.preferred
C. voted
D. removed

I. READING : (2.5pts)

PART 1: Read the passage and circle the best option for each the numbered blanks from 21to 25.

River pollution (21) _ when pollutants are not removed from sewage and are discharged into the river. River water is a very important source of freshwater required to sustain life. We need a constant supply of fresh water for (22) , cooking and washing. Animals living near the river, as well as fishes and aquatic plants, also depend (23) clean river water. When heavy rainfall occurs, pollutants accumulated within the boundaries of the catchment area may be washed into river channels. These pollutants include a (24) of agrochemicals like fertilizers (25) insecticides .

Question 21. A. occurs B. occur C. occurred D. had occurred

Question 22. A. drink B. drinking C. to drink D.drunk

Question 23. A. in B. at C. on D.for

Question 24. A. vary B. variety C.various D.variously

Question 25. A. and B. or C. but D.so

PART 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (from 26 to 30).

Adele has been one of the world's most well-known singers and songwriters in recent years. Born in North London in 1988, Adele started singing at a young age and she was mostly influenced by the Spice Girls. At the age of 16, Adele composed her first hit song, "Hometown Glory".

When she was a student at the British School for Performing Arts and Technology, she recorded three songs for a class project. All these songs later were posted on MySpace.com and became very popular. As a result, she was offered a record deal from XL Recordings after her graduation. Her first album "19" debuted at number one on the British charts in 2008.

In March 2008, she did a short tour in America and soon her international career began. In 2011, her second album, "21" came out. The music on this album was different from the soul music of "19". It was influenced by American country music, which Adele was listening to during her tour.

In 2012, she wrote and recorded "Skyfall" for the James Bond film of the same name. The song sold more than two million copies worldwide and for it, Adele won the Academy Award for Best Original Song. Since 2012, Adele has won many more awards. She has many fans including other famous singers because they admire her unique voice and her passion for music.

(Adapted from "Adele" by Learning Resource Network)

Question 26. Adele began writing her first song .

A. when she was 16
B. at a young age
C. after her graduation
D. when she did a short tour in America

Question 27. Adele’s first album “19” was .

A. country music
B. classical music
C. pop music
D. the soul music

Question 28. After Adele graduated from her art school, .

A. she posted her songs on My Space
B. she started singing and writing songs
C. she got a contract with a recording label
D. she started her career in America

Question 29. The word "came out" in paragraph 3 can be replaced by .

A. was composed
B. was released
C. was offered
D. was awarded

Question 30. The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to .

A. the song "Skyfall"
B. the Academy Award
C. Adele's best song
D. the 2012 James Bond film

II. WRITING: (2.5pts) PART 1:

Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.

Question 31. The students collect the rubbish in the schoolyard twice a week.

The rubbish ……………………………………………………………

Question 32. Her parents don’t allow her to join outdoor activities on Saturdays.

Her parents don’t let ……………………………………………………

Combine each pair of sentences into one by using the given words.

Question 33. Tim is sleeping. You can't speak to him at the moment. (SO)

…………………………………………………….

Question 34. My mum does the cooking. My dad does the heavy lifting. (AND)

…………………………………………………….

PART 2: Write an email to your friend, Mary; and talk about your family routines. To: Mary
Subject: My family routines Hi Mary,

How are you? We’re all doing fine here. You asked me about my family routines. Well, we have a number of routines to help us learn life skills as well as build family bonds. Here are three main ones.

…………………………………………………................

....................................................................................

…………………………………………………................

....................................................................................

What do you think about my family routines? Please, write back soon and let me know.

Best wishes,

*Suggested ideas:

-household chores

-first

-second

-finally

Đáp án đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Anh 10 Global success

I.TRẮC NGHIỆM: (Mỗi câu đúng 0.25 đ)

1.B

2.C

3.A

4.B

5.T

6.F

7.F

8.T

9.B

10.C

11.B

12.A

13.A

14.C

15.C

16.D

17.A

18.B

19.B

20.D

21.A

22.B

23.C

24.B

25.A

26.A

27.D

28.C

29.B

30.A

II. TỰ LUẬN

Part 1: (Mỗi câu tự luận 0,375 đ)

Question 3 1. The rubbish in the schoolyard is collected twice a week by the students.

Question 3 2. Her parents don’t let her join outdoor activities on Saturdays.

Question 3 3. Tim is sleeping, so you can't speak to him at the moment.

Question 3 4. My mum does the cooking, and my dad does the heavy lifting.

..................

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2. Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 English Discovery

Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 English Discovery

SỞ GD& ĐT …

TRƯỜN G THPT ………

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG GIỮA HỌC KỲ I

NĂM HỌC: 2025 -2026

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10

THỜI GIAN: 45 phút

PART 1. LISTENING

Listen to a lecture about the internet and choose the correct answer.

Bài nghe:

1. When did the idea of the internet come about?

A. In the 1960s.
B. In the 1990s.

2. In which country was the first long-distance network created?

A. the UK.
B. the USA.

3. What was the first message sent over the network?

A. “hello”
B. “login”

4. What is an internet protocol?

A. A set of rules.
B. A message between two computers.

5. What did Tim Berners-Lee invent?

A. the World Wide Web.
B. A messaging software.

PART 2. LANGUAGE

Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the word pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions.

6 A. brave

B. dangerous

C. case

D. adventure

7. A. some

B. come

C. lost

D. done

8. A. heavy

B. already

C. leaving

C. head

Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

9. A. reply

B. surprise

C. message

D. forget

10. A. accomplish

B. argument

C. motivate

D. hospital

Choose the word /phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence.

11. It heavily last August.

A. is raining
B. was raining
C. rained
D. rain

12. What when I phoned yesterday?

A. were you doing
B. do you do
C. did you do
D. do you did

13. Every morning, I often sit in my garden and to my nightingale sing.

A. listening
B. listen
C. listened
D. listens

14. She school when she was six.

A. start
B. started
C. has started
D. are starting

15. he playing football now?

A. Will
B. Does
C. Was
D. Is

16. This record-shop be a book-shop a few years ago.

A. used to
B. use
C. used
D. uses to

17. I couldn't come to the party because I go to work.

A. have
B. had to
C. have got
D. had

18. Geordie Stewart, a twenty-year-old university student, set off for Everest to be the youngest Briton to

the “Seven Summits” challenge - climbing the highest mountain on each continent.

A. achiever
B. achievement
C. achieve
D. achievable

19. The company can offer a number of opportunities for career .

A. development
B. develop
C. developing
D. developed

20. Once, she her ankle but she didn’t stop running.

A. sprained
B. tripped over
C. fell
D. slipped

PART 3. READING

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

A FANTASTIC MIND

Hayao Miyazaki was born in Tokyo on January 5, 1941. As a boy, he liked to read and draw cartoons. After graduating from university in 1963, Miyazaki joined the Toei Animation Company. At Toei, he worked on many animated movies, like the famous Puss in Boots. In 1984, he made Nausicaa of the Valley of Wind, which was based on a comic book he wrote. Because this movie was so successful, Miyazaki was able to start his own animation company, Studio Ghibli.

One of Miyazaki’s most loved movies is My Neighbor Totoro, made in 1987. It is a children’s movie, but many adults like it, too. The movie is about two sisters who become friends with an enormous, supernatural animal named Totoro. It is a very warm-hearted story, with many fantastic characters such as Cat Bus, a cat that is also a bus. Miyazaki’s 2001 movie, Spirited Away, was even more popular than Totoro. In fact, it made more money than any other movie in Japanese history.

All of Miyazaki’s movies contain strange but charming people and creatures. Many of his stories happen in worlds that are different from ours. However, they still show his ideas about real life. He often points out how humans hurt the natural world. He thinks people should change how they live.

Miyazaki’s movies combine fantasy and reality in an original way. This may be why so many people like his movies.

............

Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 English Discovery

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3. Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global

Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global

SỞ GD&ĐT………..

TRƯỜNG THPT…………..

-----------------------------

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ I-NĂM HỌC: 2025- 2026

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH-LỚP 10

Thời gian làm bài :45 phút(không kể thời gian giao đề)

I. HONETICS

Section 1: Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.

1. A. fair

B. straight

C. waistcoat

D. explain

2. A. narrow

B. shallow

C. follow

D. allow

Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others.

3. A. anxious

B. boring

C. envious

D. ashamed

4. A. confused

B. upset

C. delighted

D. frightened

I. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.

5. My brother is at home. He’s playing guitar.

A. x- the
B. x – x
C. the – the
D. the - x

6. Don’t forget your raincoat – it .

A. rains
B. is raining
C. rain
D. raining

7. My sister very hard for the exam. Unfortunately, she got a bad mark in English.

A. is working
B. works
C. was working

D. worked

8. While we take my children to the park, our car broke down.

A. took
B. were taking
C. takes
D. are taking

9. When my friends get home, they a mouse in the kitchen.

A. find
B. found
C. is finding
D. were finding

10. It was to have met such a great movie star.

A. thrilled
B. annoying
C. thrilling
D. annoyed

11. The books he wrote about famous mountain climbers are his greatest .

A. achieve
B. achievement
C. achievable
D. achiever

12. He is famous for his as a mountain climber.

A. accomplish
B. accomplished
C. accomplishing
D. accomplishment

13. Halloween was probably the most film I have ever seen.

A. frightened
B. exhausting
C. frightening
D. exhausted

.......

Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage. Although living in another country can be an (26) adventure, it is sometimes proves to be a difficult experience. Many things are new and different – not only the language and culture but also everyday things like where to buy stamps or when banks are open. For a person who is used (27) in control of their world these new experiences can make them feel helpless, (28) and frustrated.

Many of those who start a life somewhere else often go through certain stages before they feel at home in their new (29) . The first few weeks after arrival in another country is full of positive feelings and excitement. Then reality sets in and can make you feel angry and impatient. Some people blame their new home for such feelings. Eventually, however, most newcomers settle (30) and begin to adapt.

26. A. excited

B. exciting

C. pleasure

D. thrilled

27. A. been

B. to being

C. to be

D. being

28. A. confusing

B. confused

C. confuse

D. confusion

29. A. surroundings

B. settings

C. atmospheres

D. situations

30. A. in

B. off

C. of

D. back

Read the passage, and choose the best following word for each space.

Phu Quoc Island is the largest island in Vietnam which is 31) in the Gulf of Thailand.

Phu Quoc Island is quite large and has two distinct seasons including the rainy season and the dry season. Whatever the season, the weather in Phu Quoc is always cool and 32) . The beach is very beautiful with white sand and clear blue water, so many people come to Phu Quoc for vacation. In addition to the beautiful 33) , the cuisine on Phu Quoc Island is also diverse, including fresh seafood processed into delicious and attractive dishes.

If you have the opportunity to visit Phu Quoc Island, you should watch the sunrise once. Watching the sunrise on the sea is really beautiful, but in Phu Quoc Island it is even more wonderful. As the sun rises, you would feel the cold gradually becoming warm. This makes the spirit extremely relaxing and comfortable, all anxiety can 34) .

With the unique 35) beauty of Phu Quoc, you must come here once.

V. WRITING

Rewrite the following sentences, using the suggestions.

36. The boat hit some rocks as it was sailing toward the shore.

=> The boat when it .

37. While you were shopping, I tidied your room.

=> You when .

38. My brother really likes football and never misses a match. (crazy)

=> My brother football and never misses a match.

39. I am not interested in what you are thinking. (care)

=> I what you are thinking.

40. Young children love watching animated films. (popular)

=> Animated films young children.

...........

Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10

1. A

2. D

3. D

4. D

5. A

6. B

7. D

8. B

9. B

10. C

11. B

12. D

13. C

14. A

15. A

16. C

17. A

18. D

19. D

20. doesn’t understand

21. boring

22. preparation

23. dropped/broke

24. lost/were playing

25. was still doing

26. B

27. B

28. B

29. A

30. A

31. located

32. mild

33. scenery

34. dissolve

35. natural

...........

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