Bộ đề thi học sinh giỏi môn tiếng Anh lớp 12 (Có đáp án) Ôn thi học sinh giỏi Anh 12
Bộ đề ôn thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 12 là tài liệu không thể thiếu dành cho các bạn chuẩn bị ôn thi học sinh giỏi lớp 12. Qua đó giúp các bạn đạt được kết quả thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh một cách tốt nhất.
TOP 50 Đề ôn thi HSG Anh 12 được biên soạn với các bài tập đa dạng, bám sát chương trình học. Đây là tài liệu tham khảo để đáp ứng nhu cầu của các em cũng như giáo viên trong việc bồi dưỡng học sinh khá, giỏi môn tiếng Anh lớp 12 và các bạn có nhu cầu được tiếp xúc, rèn luyện với những dạng đề thi cơ bản và nâng cao trong các kì thi học sinh giỏi. Vậy sau đây là TOP 50 Đề ôn thi học sinh giỏi Anh 12 mời các bạn cùng đón đọc nhé.
Bộ đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh 12
Part A. LISTENING
I. Listen to Amanda talking to a friend about a birthday party. For each question, circle the best answer (A, B, C). You will hear the conversation twice. (0) is as an example. (1 point)
Example:
0. How many people can come to the party?
A. 8
B. 11
C.18
1. Which ice cream will they have at the party?
A. coffee
B. lemon
C. apple
2. What is broken?
A. the CD player
B. the cassette recorder
C. the guitar
3. Whose birthday is it?
A. Emma's
B. Joan's
C. Amanda's sister's
4. What present has Amanda bought?
A. a camera
B. a video
C. a football
5. What time should people arrive at the party?
A. 8 p.m.
B. 8.30 p.m.
C. 9.30 p.m.
II. Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear twice. (2 points)
West Bay Hotel - details of job
Example Answer
• Newspaper advert for …temporary .. staff
• Vacancies for (1) ..................................
• Two shifts
• Can choose your (2) ................................... (must be the same each week)
Pay: £5.50 per hour, including a (3) ..................................
• A (4) ...............................is provided in the hotel
• Total weekly pay: £231
• Dress: a white shirt and (5) .................................. trousers (not supplied)
a (6) ................................ (supplied)
• Starting date: (7) ....................................
• Call Jane (8) ..................................(Service Manager) before (9) ...........................
tomorrow (Tel: 832009)
• She'll require a (10) ………......................
Part B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR
I. Circle the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each unfinished sentence. (1 point)
1. I love this painting of an old man. He has such a …………….. smile.
A. childhood
B. childish
C. childless
D. childlike
2. You’d better leave for the airport now ………….. there’s a lot of traffic on the way.
A. in fact
B. in time
C. in order
D. in case
3. I would like to thank you, …………… my colleagues, for the welcome you have given us.
A. on account of
B. on behalf of
C. because of
D. instead of
4. The poor child was in floods of …………………because his bicycle had been stolen.
A. weeping
B. tears
C. crying
D. unhappiness
5. The soldier was punished for ……………. to obey his commanding officer’s orders.
A. refusing
B. regretting
C. objecting
D. resisting
6. She ………… her husband’s job for his ill health.
A. accused
B. blamed
C. caused
D. claimed
7. It’s time we ………….. this old car and bought a new one.
A. will
B. had sold
C. have sold
D. sold
8. The project was rejected because of ………….. funds.
A. unavailable
B. inconsiderable
C. incomplete
D. insufficient
9. Please leave this space ………… on the enrolment form.
A. absent
B. blank
C. missing
D. undone
10. You shouldn’t have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely ……….. of you.
A. unfortunate
B. insensitive
C. insensible
D. unconscious
11. Phone me before ten; ……………. I’ll be too busy to talk to you.
A. unless
B. whether
C. otherwise
D. if
12. According to the ………… of the contract, tenants must give six months’ notice if they intend to leave.
A. laws
B. rules
C. terms
D. details
13. The injured man was taken to hospital and ………… for internal injuries.
A. cured
B. healed
C. operated
D. treated
14. The door hinges had all been oiled to stop them ……………
A. squeaking B. screeching C. shrieking D. squealing
15. Mary attempted to …………… herself with her new boss by volunteering to take on extra work.
A. gratify
B. please
C. ingratiate
D. commend
16. You are under no obligation ………… to accept this offer.
A. indeed
B. eventually
C. apart
D. whatsoever
17. Wasn’t it you yourself ……….. the door open?
A. to be left
B. were left
C. who left
D. that should leave
18. If only motorists …………. drive more carefully!
A. must
B. shall
C. would
D. will
19. It is regretted that there can be no …………… to this rule.
A. exclusion
B. alternative
C. exception
D. deviation
20. Complete the form as …………… in the notes below.
A. insisted
B. specified
C. implied
D. devised
II. In the passage below some lines are correct but some have a word that should not be there. Indicate the correct lines with a tick (√). For the incorrect lines, write the words that should not be there. (1 point)
1 .................. Many species of animals, birds and even that insects are in danger
2 ………….. of disappearing from the earth off. Every day construction in
3 ………….. the rainforests destroys the habitats of these creatures. They
4 ………….. cannot survive in other environments. They rely on about the food
5 ………….. and shelter being in their own habitats. Each time a habitat is
6 ………….. destroyed, the animals must have search for a new place. Luckily,
7 ………….. there are some people who they are doing something about this
8 ………….. situation. Animal protection societies are helping for the world
9 ………….. to learn more than about endangered species. When people know
10 ………… more, they can fight to protect and save the animals.
III. Choose the right tenses to complete the following passage. (1 point)
Traditionally, universities (1.carry out) ........................... two main activities: research and teaching. Many academics would argue that both these activities play a critical role in serving the community. The fundamental question, however, is: how does the community want or need (2. serve) ...........................?
In recent years, universities have been coming under (3.increase) ...........................
pressure from both governments and the public (4.ensure) ........................... that they do not remain “ivory towers” of study divorced from the realities of everyday life. University teachers (5.encourage) ..........................., and in some cases constrained, to provide more courses which
produce graduates with the technical skills (6. require) ........................... for the commercial sector and research that has practical benefits which are commercially exploitable. If Aristotle (7.want) ........................... to work in a tertiary institution in the UK today, he would have a good chance of teaching computer science but would not be so readily employable as a philosopher.
A post-industrial society (8. require) ........................... large numbers of computer programmers, engineers, managers and technicians to maintain and develop its economic growth but man, as the Bible says “does not live by bread alone”. Apart from requiring medical and social services which do not directly contribute to economic growth, it (9.be) ........................... an impoverished society that did not value and enjoy literature, music and the arts. In these cost- conscious times, it even (10.point out) ........................... in justification for the funding of the arts that they can be useful money earners. A successful musical, for instance, can contribute as much to the Gross Nation Product through tourist dollars as any other export initiative.
IV. Use the correct form of the word in capitals to fit each gap. (1 point)
Interviews are an imperfect method of choosing the best people
for jobs, yet human (1) ...........................like to examine each other in BE
this way. One of the many problems of (2) ...........................as it is SELECT
commonly practised is that the forms filled in by (3) ........................... APPLY
often fail to show people as they really are. This means that you can
follow all the best (4) ........................... when completing your form and ADVISE
still find that you are (5) ........................... at the next stage - the interview. SUCCESS
(6) ..........................., in the rare cases where interviewers are automatic, a SIMILAR candidate with an (7) ........................... form may do surprisingly well. ADEQUATE Of course, your forms need to show that you have (8) ........................... CONFIDENT in your (9) ........................... to do the job, but don’t try to turn yourself ABLE into someone else – a person you have to pretend to be at the interview. Realism and (10) ........................... are definitely the best HONEST approach.
V. Choose the correct prepositional phrase from the box to complete the following sentences. You may not use one phrase. (1 point)
on good terms | independent of | tired of | out of tune |
ashamed of | on the whole | capable of | at most |
for safe keeping | out of order | for a change |
1. She was .................................... her poor exam results.
2. He gave his watch and wallet to me ................................. while he went for a swim in the lake. 3. You are ........................................ better work than this.
4. The piano is ........................................ again. It sounds terrible.
5. She is old enough to be ........................................ her parents.
6. Despite many disagreements, they’re now ........................................with their next-door neighbours.
7. I’m ..........................................doing the same thing every day.
8. There weren’t many passengers on the bus – twelve ........................................... .
9. Parts of the play were boring, but ......................................... I quite enjoyed.
10. You’ll have to use the stairs. The lift is ...........................................
VI. Insert a, an or the if necessary. Write Æ if there is no article. (1 point)
In (1)………….. summer of 1907, I was living in (2) …………..little cottage in (3)………….. country, at (4) …………..small distance from (5) ………….. sea. Half (6)………….. mile from my cottage there was (7) …………..school, The Grables, where Harold Stackhurst, (8) ………….. headmaster, and several other teachers taught students and prepared them for various professions.
Stackhurst and I went on friendly terms and he was (9) …………..only man in………….. (10) neighbourhood who sometimes called at my cottage.
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage. Circle the best answers (A, B, C or D) to complete the passage. (1 point)
Smoking causes lung cancer, heart disease, and breathing problems. Worldwide, about three million people die every year because of smoking - that's about one ....(1)...... every ten seconds ! In fact, smoking is the ....(2)...... of almost 20 percent of all deaths in the developed countries of the world. Smoking doesn't just ....(3)...... the smoker, it hurts other people, too. When a pregnant ....(4)...... smokes, she is hurting her developing....(5)....... When a man
.....(6)...... at home, his wife and children are also breathing in smoke and can become sick. Even though most people understand the ....(7)....... effects of smoking, they continue to smoke. The
...(8).....of women and teenagers who smoke is increasing. Cigarette companies make advertisements that.....(9).......these groups of people so that they...(10)....to buy cigaretes.
1. A. death B. end C. loss D. decrease
2. A. origin B. reason C. cause D. basis
3. A. injure B. danger C. destroy D. hurt
4. A. child B. man C. woman D. wife
5. A. baby B. children C. love D. youth
6. A. relax B. enjoy C. cigarettes D. smokes
7. A. beneficial B. harmful C. harmed D. profitable
8. A. number B. amount C. quantity D. total
9. A. interest B. concern C. matter D. worry
10. A. retain B. maintain C. continue D. preserve
II. Read the passage below. Then circle the best option (A, B, C or D) to answer each question. (1 point)
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imaginary and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printing sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poisoned the food supply of animals, killed birds and fish, and contaminated human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
1.The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work
A. as a research
B. at college
C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
D. as a writer
2. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
A. oceanography
B. history
C. literature
D. zoology
3. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of
A. 26
B. 29
C. 34
D. 35
4. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind
A. was outdated.
B. became more popular than her other books.
C. was praised by critics.
D. sold many copies.
5. Which of the following was Not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us?
A. printed matter
B. talks with experts
C. a research expedition
D. letters from scientists
6. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around Us?
A. highly technical
B. poetic
C. fascinating
D. well-researched
7.The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to
A. unnecessary
B. limited
C. continuous
D. irresponsible
8. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily
A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food.
B. a discussion of the hazards insects posing to the food supply.
C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides.
D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry.
9. The word “flawed” is closest in meaning to
A. faulty
B. deceptive
C. logical
D. offensive
10. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’ s Science Advisory Committee?
A. To provide an example of government propaganda.
B. To support Carson’s ideas.
C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.
D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims.
III. Read the text below carefully and then do the following exercises. (1 point)
Testing 1, 2, 3, …
A. These are testing times. In both education and the field of work, the prevailing wisdom apears to be: if it moves, test it and if doesn’t, well, test it anyway. I say wisdom, but it has become rather an absession. In addition to the current obstacles, like GCSEs, A-levels, GNVQs, ONDs, and HNDs, not to mention the interviews and financial hurdles that school-leavers have to overcome in order to access higher education, students are facing the threat of “new tests”, Scholastic Aptitude Tests (SATs)
B. SATs are being imported from the United States, where they have been in use for nearly a hundred years. As a supplement to A-levels, the tests purport to give students from poor backgrounds a better chance of entering university. SATs are intended to remove the huge social class bias that exists in British universities. But, in fact, they are, no more than an additional barrier for students. The tests, which masquerade as IQ tests, are probably less diagnostic of student potential than existing examinations, and, more seriously, are far from free of the bias that the supporters pretend.
C. First of all, as for any other tests, students will be able to take classes to cram for SATs, which again will advantage the better-off. At a recent conference of the Prefessional Association of Teachers, it was declared that school exams and tests are biased toward middle-class children. Further, the content of the tests in question is not based on sound scientific theory, merely on a pool of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), set up by a group of item writers.
D. The questions in SATs are tested on a representative sample of children. Those which correlate with the school grades of the children are kept, and the rest discarded. This is highly unsatisfactory. There is also evidence that in MCQs tests women are at a disadvantage, because of the way they think, i.e. they can see a wider picture. And it is worth noting that MCQs are only as good as the people who write them; so, unless the writers are highly trained, those who are being tested are being judged against the narrow limitations of the item writers.
E. Globalisation has introduced greater flexibility into the workplace, but the educational system has not been so quick off the mark. But there are signs that times are a changing. Previously, students took exams at the end of academic terms, or at fixed dates periodically throughout the year. Now, language examinations like the TOEFL, IELTs and the Pitman ESOL exams can be taken much more frequently. The IELTs examination, for example, is run a test centre throughout the world subject to demand. Where the demand is high, the test is held more frequently. At present, in London, it is possible for students to sit the exam about four times a week.
F. Flexible assessment like the IELTs has been mooted in other areas. It has been suggested that the students may in future be able to walk into a public library or other public building and take assessment test for a range of skills on a computer. The computer will dispense an instant assessment and a certificate. The beauty of this system is the convenience.
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