Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 7 năm 2024 - 2025 sách Chân trời sáng tạo 4 Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 7 - Friends Plus (Có đáp án)

Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 Friends Plus năm 2024 - 2025 gồm 4 đề kiểm tra có đáp án giải chi tiết kèm theo. Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 7 Friends Plus được biên soạn bám sát chương trình học trong SGK hiện hành.

Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 Friends Plus với cấu trúc đề đa dạng gồm cả trắc nghiệm kết hợp tự luận. Thông qua bộ đề kiểm tra này các em lớp 7 có thêm nhiều tư liệu ôn tập, làm quen với các dạng bài tập trọng tâm để đạt kết quả cao trong kì thi sắp tới. Đồng thời giúp giáo viên ôn luyện cho các em học sinh của mình. Bên cạnh đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 7 Friends Plus các em xem thêm Đề thi giữa kì 1 Toán 7 Chân trời sáng tạo.

1. Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 Friends Plus - Đề 1

1.1 Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 Friends Plus

PART A. LISTENING: (2.5 points)

I. Listen to people talking about health problems. What is each person’s problem? Write the correct letter. (1.25pts)

II. Listen to a conversation between Mark and Mi and choose the correct answer A, B , C or D to complete the sentences ( 1.25pts)

1. What are Mark and Mi talking about?

A. healthy problems
C. sports and games
B. healthy activities
D. indoor activites

2. In the picture, Mark and his father are _________________.

A. boating
B. cycling
C. swimming
D. running

3. The people in Mark’s neighbourhood love to go to the ___________.

A.mountain
B. river
C. park
D. lake

4. Mi’s family often goes cycling in the __________________.

A.zoo
B. city
C. park
D.countryside

5. Mi asks Mark to bring along ______________and suncream .

A. a bag
B. a hat
C. an umbrella
D. a raincoat

PART B. USE OF ENGLISH: (2.5 points)

I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from others (0.25 pt)

1. A. plays B. starts C. listens D. sees

II. Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is placed differently from that of the other in each group.(0.25pt)

1. A. comic B. market C. collect D. poster

III. Choose the best answer (1.5pts)

1. Jack is now learning to ……………………………………………..the piano.

A. playing
B. plays
C. play
D. played

2. Peter looks red. He was outdoors yesterday. Perhaps he has……………..

A. a flu
B. a stomachache
C. spots
D. sunburnt

3. Mary loves going to outdoor concerts ………………………………the fall.

A. for
B. on
C. at
D. in

4. I…………….. a birthday party on Sunday night. Would you like to come?

A. have
B. am having
C. have had
D. will have

5. Teenagers....................................................go to bed early. It's good for them.

A. should
B. may
C. can
D. might

6. Jack is too busy and he doesn't have.....time for relaxation.

A. some
B. any
C. no
D. many

Each of below sentence has a mistake Find out them. (0.5pt)

1. Peter and I ride (A)to school every day. They (B) bikes are(C) over (D)there.

2. How many (A)  soda does (B) your sister drink (C) every week? (D)

PART C. READING: (2.5 points)

I. Read the following passage and answer the questions (1.25pts)

Maintaining a healthy body is not that easy and not so difficult also. The most important tip for a healthy body is to have healthy food, eat them at right time and avoid eating junk food. Your diet should contain food which has more nutrients. Try to include vegetables, fruits, milk, and fish in your daily diet. Make sure you are having your breakfast regularly. Skipping your breakfast regularly will definitely affect your health. Make sure you drink more amount of water daily. Regular exercise will also keep your body in good health. You can go running, do cycling, walking faster etc. Apart from these always try to manage your stress. By controlling your stress, you can maintain a healthy body. Your body should get enough time to take rest. Make sure you get a sleep of 8 hours daily. Sleep is very important for healthy body and also for mental and emotional happiness.

1. What is the most important tip for a healthy body?

2. What kinds of food and drink should you your daily diet include?

3. How many hours a day should you sleep to have a healthy body?

4. What does the word “them” in line 2 refer to?

5. What is the passage about?

II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage: (1.25pts)

Dear Sirs,

I am writing to apply for the post of film editor, as advertised in this morning’s Daily Sun. I was born (1) ____________ August 18th 1990 and I attended Elm Strost Primary School from 1996 to 2002, and Roger Holmes Secondary School from 2002 to 2007. I passed my School Certificate Examination that year and (2) ____________ Grade B in English, French and Art and Grade C in Mathematics, Science, History and Geography.

I worked as a Junior Clerk at the East- West Trading Company from July 2007 to October 2008. In October 2008 I obtained a position with New Anglia Film Productions as an assistant editor. I like this work a lot.

I can speak French and Spanish fairly well and can (3) ____________ a car. I get on with people and I enjoy hard work. My (4) ____________ are photography, watching television and (5 ____________ the guitar.

I can attend an interview at any time.

Yours faithfully,

Olison Carla

1. A. on B. in C. at D. by

2. A. went B. got C. saw D. made

3. A. drive B. get C. ride D. learn

4. A. films B. subjects C. hobbies D. friends

5. A. playing B. doing C. going D. sending

PART D. WRITING: (2.5 points)

I. Rearrange the following sentences to make the meaningful sentences. (0.5pt )

1. old clothes/ the homeless/ We/ to provide to/ usually/ and food/ collect/.

-> ………………………………………………………………………………………

2. with her best friends/ Ha/ at weekends/ going on/ likes/ a picnic/.

-> ………………………………………………………………………………………

II. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their original meaning. (1.0pt)

1. Hoa was sick, so she couldn’t go to school yesterday.

-> Because …………………………………………………………………………….

2. Playing the piano in free time is his favorite activity

→ He likes ……………………………………….

3. It's good for you to stop smoking because you are not healthy.

→You should ……………………………………………………..

4. I want to make a big cake for my mother’s birthday.

→ I would like ………………………………………………………………

III. Write a paragraph (about 60-80 words) about your hobby. (1.0pt)

1.2 Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 tiếng Anh 7

PART A. LISTENING: (2.5pts )

I. 1.25pts ( 0.25pt/ each correct answer )

II. 1.25pts ( 0.25pt/ each correct answer )

PART B. USE OF ENGLISH: (2.5pts )

I. 0.25pt

II. 0.25pt

III. 1.5pts ( 0.25pt/ each correct answer )

IV. 0.5pt ( 0.25pt/ each correct answer )

PART C. READING: (2.5pts)

I. 1.25pts ( 0.25pt/ each correct answer)

1. The most important tip for a healthy body/ It is to have healthy food, eat them at right time and avoid eating junk food.

2. Your diet/ It should include vegetables, fruits, milk, and fish.

3. 8 hours a day.

4. Healthy food.

5. Healthy body

II. 1.25pts ( 0.25pt/ each correct answer)

.........

Xem đáp án chi tiết trong file tải về

2. Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 7 Friends Plus - Đề 2

2.1 Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 7 Friends Plus

PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from others.

1.

A. clear

B. hear

C. near

D. bear

2.

A. house

B. cloud

C. shoulder

D. sound

3.

A. fail

B. hair

C. chair

D. stair

Choose the bold word that has a different stress pattern from the others.

4.

A. engaged

B. happy

C. instant

D. silly

5.

A. inventor

B. creative

C. media

D. emoji

USE OF ENGLISH

Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence.

6. He loves being ______ front of TV.

A. in

B. to

C. from

7. How do you ______ your free time?

A. make

B. spend

C. like

8. My parents do not ______ phones at dinner time.

A. spend

B. give

C. allow

9. My sister is older and she ______ more.

A. studies

B. study

C. does study

10. ______ does your family eat together?- Twice a week.

A. How long

B. When

C. How often

11. He usually ______ to school by bike.

A. is going

B. goes

C. go

12. Mike ______ Lucy an instant message now.

A. is sending

B. are sending

C. sends

13. The students ______ to their teacher in class right now.

A. are listening

B. is listening

C. listen

14. Does Anna often have _________ conversations with friends?

A. instant

B. social

C. face-to-face

15. My parents ______ on the sofa at the moment.

A. sit

B. are sitting

C. is sitting

16. Does your mom _______ more than two languages?

A. talk

B. say

C. speak

LISTENING

Listen to Mr. Baker talking about five tips to get a good night’s sleep. Choose the correct answer, A, B or C.

17. Who is the guest in the studio?

A. A teacher

B. A doctor

C. A nurse

18. Why can’t some people sleep well with the TV on?

A. Because the noise and lights make them awake

B. Because the TV shows are interesting

C. Because the films are exciting

19. What does Mr. Baker say about doing homework?

A. Do the easiest homework earlier in the evening, then do the hardest homework later

B. Do not do any homework before bedtime

C. Do the hardest homework earlier in the evening, then do the easier homework later

20. How long can we play video games before bedtime?

A. Less than an hour

B. An hour

C. More than one hour

21. What does Mr. Baker say about cellphone?

A. Leave your phone in another room

B. Turn off your cell phone when you go to bed

C. Both A and B are correct.

READING

Read the passage and decide whether each statement is True or False.

Sandra is twelve years old and she lives with her parents and her little sister in Newcastle. She likes to do a lot of things but most of all she is fond of collecting stamps.

Her parents and her friends help her to collect the stamps. She has got over seven hundred stamps from different countries. They are very beautiful indeed. All her stamps are gathered in groups such as: sports, famous people, birds, animals, capitals, space, trees, flowers, cars, planes and countries.

Her friends often come to her and she tells them this history of each stamp. It is very interesting.

22. Sandra is eleven years old.

23. She lives in Newcastle with her grandparents.

24. She gathers her stamps in different groups.

25. When her friends come to her, she tells them the history of each stamp.

WRITING

Rearrange the words in a correct order to make a complete sentence.

26. listen/ music/ They/ online/ to

27. do/ How often/ stay/ you/ in/ late / bed?

28. loves/ He/ things/ collecting.

29. She’s/ seventy/ about/ got/ books.

30. doesn’t/ read/ Tom/ because/ he/ in/ can’t/ bed/ sleep.

2.2 Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng Anh 7 Friends Plus

PRONUNCIATION

USE OF ENGLISH

LISTENING

Listening Transcript:

Host: At exam time it is important to sleep well. Today we have Doctor Baker with us in the studio and he is going to give us five top tips for getting a good night’s sleep. Welcome to the show, Doctor Baker.

Dr Baker: Thank you. It’s great to be here. Let’s start with tip one. Don’t go to bed with the television on. Some people think they can sleep well with the TV on, but the noise and lights mean you don’t really sleep well, so turn it off!

Tip two: Don’t think too much before bedtime. Do your hardest homework earlier in the evening. Do easier homework later. If your brain is too busy and full of ideas it takes longer to get to sleep.

Tip three: Don’t play video games for an hour before you go to sleep. They also make your brain too busy and active.

Tip four: Turn off your cell phone when you go to bed. What is so important that it can’t wait until the morning? If possible, leave your phone in another room.

Tip five: Play music if you like. But don’t play it too loud. Turn the sound down low.

Host: Thank you, Doctor. That is very useful advice for our young listeners.

READING

WRITING

26. They listen to music online.

27. How often do you stay in bed late?

28. He loves collecting things.

29. She’s got about seventy books.

30. Tom doesn’t read in bed because he can’t sleep.

.................

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